Expected value of X*exp(X) for X normally distributed

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To compute the expected value \(\mathbb{E}[X e^X]\) for \(X\) normally distributed, the integral involves the expression \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x e^{x} e^{-(x - \mu)^2 / \sigma^2} \, dx\), which poses challenges for standard integration techniques. An exact result for the standard distribution \((\mu, \sigma) = (0, 1)\) is available via WolframAlpha. A suggested approach involves rewriting the integrand by completing the square, transforming it into a more manageable form. This method allows for the simplification of the integral, leading to a new mean and a coefficient derived from the adjustments made during the square completion. The discussion emphasizes the complexity of the integration while providing a pathway to a solution.
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Assume we have X\sim\exp(\mu,\sigma^2).
How does one compute \mathbb{E}\left(Xe^X\right) and/or what is the outcome value?
 
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The definition would say that

$$\mathbb{E}[ X e^X ] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x e^{x} e^{-(x - \mu)^2 / \sigma^2} \, dx$$

That's a tricky one, I don't think any of the common integration strategies really work.
WolframAlpha does give me an exact result for the standard distribution ##(\mu, \sigma) = (0, 1)##.

Maybe this will also help.

Sorry for the incomplete answer, hoping that this will get you started.
 
Rewrite ##\exp(x)\exp(-(x-\mu)^2/(2\sigma^2))## as ##\exp(x-(x-\mu)^2/(2\sigma^2)) = \exp((2\sigma^2x-(x-\mu)^2)/(2\sigma^2))##. Now complete the square so that you get ##a\exp(-(x-\mu')^2)/(2\sigma^2))##, where ##a## is the exponential of the nasty junk you had to add to complete the square and ##\mu'## has the effect of being a new mean.
 
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Very nice one, and congratulations on post number 13,000!
 
The standard _A " operator" maps a Null Hypothesis Ho into a decision set { Do not reject:=1 and reject :=0}. In this sense ( HA)_A , makes no sense. Since H0, HA aren't exhaustive, can we find an alternative operator, _A' , so that ( H_A)_A' makes sense? Isn't Pearson Neyman related to this? Hope I'm making sense. Edit: I was motivated by a superficial similarity of the idea with double transposition of matrices M, with ## (M^{T})^{T}=M##, and just wanted to see if it made sense to talk...

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