- #1
xouper
- 13
- 0
Regarding the Barber of Seville paradox, I am looking for something equivalent that is expressed in functional notation.
For example, this is my attempt at a piecewise definition of such a function:
For a function [itex]f : \mathbb{N} \mapsto \{0,1\}[/itex]
[tex]f(n)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}0,&\mbox{ if }f(n)=1\\1,&\mbox{ if } f(n)=0\end{array}\right.[/tex]
Does this function definition express the essence of the Barber paradox?
For example, this is my attempt at a piecewise definition of such a function:
For a function [itex]f : \mathbb{N} \mapsto \{0,1\}[/itex]
[tex]f(n)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}0,&\mbox{ if }f(n)=1\\1,&\mbox{ if } f(n)=0\end{array}\right.[/tex]
Does this function definition express the essence of the Barber paradox?