F(n) Limit Calculation and Inequality Proof Help

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the calculation of the limit of the function f(n) = (1 - (1/n))^n as n approaches infinity, and the proof of an inequality involving this limit and specific values of the function. Participants explore various mathematical approaches and inequalities related to exponential functions and logarithms.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant calculates the limit of f(n) as n approaches infinity to be 1/e and seeks to prove an inequality involving f(60) and f(infinity).
  • Another participant suggests subtracting 1/59 from both sides of the inequality to simplify the proof.
  • A different participant mentions the inequality e^x >= 1+x and proposes using it to demonstrate relationships involving exponential functions.
  • There is a suggestion to invert terms in the inequality to explore further relationships, with a focus on plugging in specific values for x.
  • One participant expresses progress by inverting terms and substituting x = 1/60, but remains uncertain about integrating the values of f(60) and f(infinity) into the proof.
  • Another participant provides a transformation of the inequality involving the logarithm of f(60) and f(infinity), indicating how to derive the inequalities using previously established relationships.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the proof of the inequality, and multiple approaches are discussed without resolution. Uncertainty remains regarding the integration of specific function values into the inequality.

Contextual Notes

Participants express limitations in their approaches, such as uncertainty in rearranging terms and the applicability of certain inequalities within defined ranges.

sr3056
Messages
10
Reaction score
0
Given f(n) = (1 - (1/n))n

I calculate that the limit as n -> infinity is 1/e.

Also given that x/(1-x) > -log(1-x) > x with 0<x<1 (I proved this in an earlier part of the question) I want to show that:

1 > (f(60)/f(infinity)) > e-1/59 > 58/59

I have tried using my value for f (infinity) and f(60) = e60*log(59/60) in the original inequality but cannot seem to rearrange it to the last one.

I get e(x/1-x) > 1/1-x > ex but am not sure where to go from there.

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hey sr3056 and welcome to the forums.

Try subtracting 1/59 from both sides (let x = 1)
 
Do you know e^x >= 1+x (with "=" just for x=0)? You can use it to show ex/(1-x) > 1/(1-x)

1/1-x > ex... maybe the derivatives can give you some way to prove this.

@chiro: x=1 is not in the range where the equation is well-defined.
 
sr3056 said:
I get e(x/1-x) > 1/1-x > ex but am not sure where to go from there.
Try inverting each term in that line (adjusting the relationships as appropriate), then plugging in a value for x.
 
Thank you for your responses.

Inverting, I get e(x/x-1) < 1 - x < e-x

Letting x = 1/60 I then get e-1/59 < 59/60 < e-1/60

This is starting to look a bit more like it, but I'm not sure how my f(60) and f(infinity) values are going to come in...
 
"f(60)/f(infinity)" = e*(1-1/60)^60
Take the log, and your inequality reads:

0 > 1+60 log(1-1/60) > -1/59
You get the left ">" with "-log(1-x) > x" and the right ">" with "x/(1-x) > -log(1-x)", both with the obvious choice for x.
 
Thank you very much
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K