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I need some help with the proof of Theorem 15.18 in Fraleigh: A First Course in Abstract Algebra.
The text of Theorem 15.18 reads as follows:
View attachment 3311In the above text we read:
" ... ... Now $$\gamma^{-1}$$ of any non-trivial proper normal subgroup of $$G/M$$ is a proper normal subgroup of $$G$$ properly containing $$M$$. ... ... "
Can someone please demonstrate formally and explicitly why $$\gamma^{-1} $$of any non-trivial proper normal subgroup of $$G/M$$ must be a proper normal subgroup of $$G$$ properly containing $$M$$.
I also hope someone can give me a sense of what is involved here and why this is the case.
Help will be appreciated.
Peter
The text of Theorem 15.18 reads as follows:
View attachment 3311In the above text we read:
" ... ... Now $$\gamma^{-1}$$ of any non-trivial proper normal subgroup of $$G/M$$ is a proper normal subgroup of $$G$$ properly containing $$M$$. ... ... "
Can someone please demonstrate formally and explicitly why $$\gamma^{-1} $$of any non-trivial proper normal subgroup of $$G/M$$ must be a proper normal subgroup of $$G$$ properly containing $$M$$.
I also hope someone can give me a sense of what is involved here and why this is the case.
Help will be appreciated.
Peter
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