MHB Find a closed form interpretation for the integral :

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The integral $\displaystyle \int^{\infty}_0 \, \frac{\log (1+e^{ax})}{1+e^{bx}}\, dx$ raises questions about solvability and the constraints on parameters $a$ and $b$. A transformation using $u=bx$ simplifies the integral, leading to a new form that introduces symmetry and factors. The discussion highlights the potential to break the integral into three parts, with one part being tractable while the others remain challenging. Numerical integration is suggested as a viable option if the values of $a$ and $b$ are known, and a related integral $\displaystyle \int^1_0 \, \frac{\log \left(t^{\frac{a}{b}}+1 \right)}{t+1}\, dt$ is noted as a more promising candidate for exploration. Overall, the thread seeks further insights or methods to tackle the original integral.
alyafey22
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$\displaystyle \int^{\infty}_0 \, \frac{\log (1+e^{ax})}{1+e^{bx}}\, dx $​

I am not sure whether it can be solved :confused:
 
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I don't know if there are any constraints on $b$ and $a$, but here's an idea or two:

1. Let $u=bx$. Let's assume $b>0$. Then you have $du=b\,dx$, and the integral becomes
$$ \frac{1}{b} \int_{0}^{ \infty} \frac{ \ln(1+e^{au/b})}{1+e^{u}}\,du.$$

Next, you can introduce symmetry where there isn't by factoring out, up top, a $e^{au/(2b)}$, which gets you
$$ \int= \frac{1}{b} \int_{0}^{ \infty} \frac{ \ln(e^{au/(2b)}(e^{-au/(2b)}+e^{au/(2b)}))}{e^{u/2}(e^{-u/2}+e^{u/2})}\,du
= \frac{1}{b} \int_{0}^{ \infty} \frac{ (au/(2b))+\ln(e^{-au/(2b)}+e^{au/(2b)})}{e^{u/2}(e^{-u/2}+e^{u/2})}\,du$$
$$=\frac{1}{2b} \int_{0}^{ \infty} \frac{ (au/(2b))+ \ln(2 \cosh(au/(2b)))}{e^{u/2} \cosh(u/2)}\,du=\frac{1}{2b} \int_{0}^{ \infty} \frac{ (au/(2b))+ \ln(2)+ \ln( \cosh(au/(2b)))}{e^{u/2} \cosh(u/2)}\,du.$$
You could break that up into three integrals. The middle one is tractable, actually. The outer two are still problematic.

That's about as far as I can go. Perhaps someone else has other ideas? Or could run with these?

Naturally, if you know what $a$ and $b$ are, you could integrate numerically. I think the integrals will likely converge, as the original denominator will dominate the numerator significantly.
 
Today I tried and got a reduced more promising to solve integral :

$\displaystyle \int^1_0 \, \frac{\log \left(t^{\frac{a}{b}}+1 \right)}{t+1}\, dt$

A power-series expansion looked for the first glance the first way to go ... :rolleyes:
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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