suspenc3 said:
Yes that's how I got it. And I am not sure why they must equal 0.
Okay, so you've got your matrix A, solved the characteristic equation and obtained your eigenvalues. You've then applied your eigenvalues to your characteristic equation of A and obtained the following;
for [itex]\lambda =1[/itex]
[tex]( A - (1)I ) = \left(\begin{array}{cc}1&1\\0&0\end{array}\right)[/tex]
Now the definition of an eigenvector (
v) of matrix A is a non-zero vector such that [itex]A\underline{v}=\lambda\underline{v}[/itex], where [itex]\lambda[/itex] is your eigenvalue. We can rewrite the above relationship as
[tex]A\underline{v} - \lambda\underline{v} = 0[/tex]
Using the fact the [itex]I\underline{v} = \underline{v}[/itex] (
I being the Identity matrix) we obatin;
[tex]A\underline{v} - \lambda I \underline{v} = 0[/tex]
[tex]\therefore \; (A-\lambda I)\underline{v} = 0[/tex]
Does that make sense? In R
2 (as in your case);
[tex]\underline{v} = \left(\begin{array}{c}x\\y\end{array}\right)[/tex]
which is where the equation I posted comes from. In fact the characteristic equation follows directly from this relationship.