Find an orthogonal quantum state: introduction to dirac notation.

knowlewj01
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Homework Statement



Suppose we have a spin 1/2 Particle in a prepared state:

[itex]\left|\Psi\right\rangle = \alpha \left|\uparrow\right\rangle + \beta\left|\downarrow\right\rangle[/itex]

where

[itex]\left|\uparrow\right\rangle \left|\downarrow\right\rangle[/itex]

are orthonormal staes representing spin up and spin down respectively.

also: [itex]\left|\alpha\right|^2 + \left|\beta\right|^2 = 1[/itex]

[itex]\alpha & \beta[/itex] are complex numbers.

find a state which is orthogonal to [itex]\left|\Psi\right\rangle[/itex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I went about this first by saying that the inner product of two states which are orthogonal is 0, so propose that:

[itex]\left\langle\Phi\right|\left|\Psi\right\rangle = 0[/itex]

where
[itex]\left|\Phi\right\rangle = \gamma\left|\uparrow\right\rangle + \delta\left|\downarrow\right\rangle[/itex]

where [itex]\gamma & \delta[/itex] are complex numbers:

[itex]\therefore[/itex]

[itex]\left\langle\Phi\right|\left|\Psi\right\rangle = \alpha \gamma^* + \beta \delta^* = 0[/itex]

Not sure where to go from here, i must be missing something. anyone know what it is?
 
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Note that if [tex]|\Phi\rangle[/tex] is orthogonal to [tex]|\Psi\rangle[/tex], then so is [tex]c|\Phi\rangle[/tex] for any complex number [tex]c[/tex]. You can use this to scale away one of the coefficients in your expression for [tex]|\Phi\rangle[/tex] and then solve for the other.
 
Not sure I'm following. I could just say that:

[itex]\alpha \gamma^* = -\beta \delta^*[/itex]

then the following relationship would satisfy.

[itex]\gamma^* = \beta , \delta^* = -\alpha[/itex]

so:
[itex]\left|\Phi\right\rangle = \beta\left|\uparrow\right\rangle - \alpha\left|\downarrow\right\rangle[/itex]
 
Of course, that's one particular solution. fzero only said that for any complex c
[tex]|\Theta\rangle = c |\Phi\rangle[/tex] also is orthogonal to [tex]|\Psi\rangle[/tex], which you could have used in your solution. But it isn't necessary.
 
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knowlewj01 said:
Not sure I'm following. I could just say that:

[itex]\alpha \gamma^* = -\beta \delta^*[/itex]

then the following relationship would satisfy.

[itex]\gamma^* = \beta , \delta^* = -\alpha[/itex]

so:
[itex]\left|\Phi\right\rangle = \beta\left|\uparrow\right\rangle - \alpha\left|\downarrow\right\rangle[/itex]

This should be

[itex]\left|\Phi\right\rangle = \beta^*\left|\uparrow\right\rangle - \alpha^*\left|\downarrow\right\rangle .[/itex]

Note that

[itex]\left|\Phi\right\rangle = \beta^*\left( \left|\uparrow\right\rangle - \frac{\alpha^*}{\beta^*} \left|\downarrow\right\rangle \right),[/itex]

so any multiple of

[tex]\left|\uparrow\right\rangle - \frac{\alpha^*}{\beta^*} \left|\downarrow\right\rangle[/tex]

is orthogonal to [tex]|\Psi\rangle[/tex].

I just thought you were having algebra trouble, so starting with a state with [tex]\gamma=1[/tex] would make things easier. However, the fact that all vectors in the Hilbert space that differ only by a rescaling correspond to the same physical state is a fundamental concept.

The extra benefit of the state that you actually found though is that it's already normalized.
 

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