mathmari
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I like Serena said:That sounds very plausible. (Mmm)
Actually, $y=0$ is always a solution, regardless of the value of $\lambda$, so $\lambda=0$ is not really the corresponding eigenvalue.
So it makes sense to leave that one out.
Furthermore, the eigenfunctions for $-\ln^2(2\pm\sqrt 3)$ are identical.
That is because $$\frac 1{2-\sqrt 3} = 2+\sqrt 3$$.
So we might consider them as the same.
Great! (Whew)
I like Serena said:Have you tried to calculate the Wronskian for 2 eigenfunctions of which 1 has an imaginary eigenvalue? (Wondering)
So should I try it for $u(x)=\sin{(x(-i \ln{(2+\sqrt{3})}+2 \pi n))}$ and $v(x)=v^*(x)=(2+\sqrt{3})^x-(2+\sqrt{3})^{-x}$ ?