Find magnetic susceptibility using partition function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the magnetic susceptibility of a magnetic system with independent molecules at various energy levels. The original poster presents a partition function and attempts to derive the Helmholtz free energy and magnetization, ultimately aiming to show the relationship for magnetic susceptibility.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive the partition function and Helmholtz free energy but questions the omission of certain terms during differentiation. Other participants question the accuracy of the free energy expression and the treatment of the partition function, suggesting that the original poster may have overlooked important contributions from specific energy states.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging in clarifying the derivation process and addressing potential errors in the original poster's approach. Some have provided alternative methods for calculating the partition function and magnetization, indicating a productive exchange of ideas without reaching a consensus on the original poster's solution.

Contextual Notes

There is an indication that the original poster may have misunderstood how to incorporate all relevant energy states into the partition function, which is a critical aspect of the problem. The discussion also highlights the need for careful consideration of terms when differentiating the free energy with respect to the magnetic field.

cozycoz

Homework Statement


A certain magnetic system contains n independent molecules per unit volume, each of which has four energy levels given by 0, ##Δ-gμ_B B##, ##\Delta##, ##\Delta +gμ_B B##. Write down the partition function, compute Helmholtz function and hence compute the magnetization ##M##. Hence show that the magnetic susceptibility ##χ## is given by χ = \lim_{B\rightarrow 0} {\frac{μ_0 M}{B}} = \frac{2 n μ_0 g^2 {μ_B}^2}{k_B T (3+e^{Δ/k_B T})}

(Sorry I don't know how to type limit in mathematical form)
\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} {\frac{\sin(x)}{x}}

Homework Equations


##F=-k_B T \ln Z##, ##m=-(\frac{∂F}{∂B})##, ##m=MV##

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
If there are N=Vn molecules, the partition function is Z=(e^{0}+e^{-β(Δ-gμ_B)}+e^{-βΔ}+e^{-β(Δ+gμ_B)})^N.
Then Helmholtz free energy function F is
F=-k_B T[-βΔ+\ln (1+2\cosh {βgμ_B B})]

Now I have to differentiate F by B, but I've noticed βΔ part would be gone because it doesn't have B at all.
My answer is
χ = \frac{2 n μ_0 g^2 {μ_B}^2}{3 k_B T}
where βΔ part is omitted.

If you tell me what's wrong it would be lovely.
 
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It is unclear how you got ## F ## from ## Z ##. It also isn't apparent how , given the ## F ## that you have presented, that a derivative w.r.t. ## B ## will not be a function of the magnetic field ## B ##, since ## cosh'(x)=sinh(x) ##. Also, in writing out ## Z ##, you left off the ## B ## dependence. You need to be more accurate in presenting it.
 
Your expression for the free energy is incorrect. My best guess is that you forgot about the state with 0 energy when taking the natural log of ##Z##.

Let me show you how I did the problem:

Let ##\zeta## denote the one-particle partition function, i.e.,
$$\begin{eqnarray*}
\zeta &= 1 + e^{-\beta \Delta} (1 + e^{\beta g \mu_B B} + e^{-\beta g \mu_B B}) \\
&= 1 + e^{-\beta \Delta} (1 + 2 \cosh (\beta g \mu_B B))
\end{eqnarray*}$$
Then ##Z = \zeta^N##, so
$$\begin{eqnarray*}
m &= -\frac{\partial}{\partial B} (F) \\
&= \frac{\partial}{\partial B} (kT \ln Z) \\
&= \frac{kTN}{\zeta} \frac{\partial \zeta}{\partial B} \\
&= \frac{(kTN) (2\beta g \mu_B) e^{-\beta \Delta} \sinh(\beta g \mu_B B) }{ 1 + e^{-\beta \Delta} (1 + 2 \cosh (\beta g \mu_B B)) }
\end{eqnarray*}$$
We then have
$$ \chi = \lim_{B \to 0} \frac{\mu_0 m}{VB} = \lim_{B \to 0} \frac{\mu_0}{B} \frac{2ng \mu_B e^{-\beta \Delta} \sinh(\beta g \mu_B B) }{ 1 + e^{-\beta \Delta} (1 + 2 \cosh(\beta g \mu_B B)) } $$
Since we're computing a limit as ##B \to 0##, we need only expand the top and bottom of this fraction to order ##B##. Doing so yields the correct answer.
 
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VKint said:
Your expression for the free energy is incorrect. My best guess is that you forgot about the state with 0 energy when taking the natural log of ##Z##.

Let me show you how I did the problem:

Let ##\zeta## denote the one-particle partition function, i.e.,
$$\begin{eqnarray*}
\zeta &= 1 + e^{-\beta \Delta} (1 + e^{\beta g \mu_B B} + e^{-\beta g \mu_B B}) \\
&= 1 + e^{-\beta \Delta} (1 + 2 \cosh (\beta g \mu_B B))
\end{eqnarray*}$$
Then ##Z = \zeta^N##, so
$$\begin{eqnarray*}
m &= -\frac{\partial}{\partial B} (F) \\
&= \frac{\partial}{\partial B} (kT \ln Z) \\
&= \frac{kTN}{\zeta} \frac{\partial \zeta}{\partial B} \\
&= \frac{(kTN) (2\beta g \mu_B) e^{-\beta \Delta} \sinh(\beta g \mu_B B) }{ 1 + e^{-\beta \Delta} (1 + 2 \cosh (\beta g \mu_B B)) }
\end{eqnarray*}$$
We then have
$$ \chi = \lim_{B \to 0} \frac{\mu_0 m}{VB} = \lim_{B \to 0} \frac{\mu_0}{B} \frac{2ng \mu_B e^{-\beta \Delta} \sinh(\beta g \mu_B B) }{ 1 + e^{-\beta \Delta} (1 + 2 \cosh(\beta g \mu_B B)) } $$
Since we're computing a limit as ##B \to 0##, we need only expand the top and bottom of this fraction to order ##B##. Doing so yields the correct answer.

Yes i forgot extra 1 taking log..
Thanks a lot
 

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