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MathematicalPhysicist said:The wave function is defined as exp(-ax^2), so for a=0 it's 1.
No it isn't, you are forgetting about the normalization constant...which depends on a
Now, <H(0)>=\int V(x)dx Now if I assume that this integral converges then it mustn't be bigger than zero, if it were zero then the integrand would equal almost everywhere to zero, but V(x)<0 for every x, so this integral is negative.
Again, \langle H(0) \rangle is undefined, but \lim_{a\to 0^{+}}\langle H(a)\rangle is well defined.