Find the number of ways an odd number of objects can be chosen

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The discussion focuses on finding the number of ways to choose an odd number of objects from n objects. For even n, the sum of combinations for odd selections is represented as nC1 + nC3 + ... + nCn-1, while for odd n, it is nC1 + nC3 + ... + nCn. Participants note that the total for both cases can be derived using binomial expansions, leading to the conclusion that the sum equals 2^(n-1). The reasoning involves recognizing that in the expansion of (1+x)^n, half of the terms correspond to odd selections. The conversation highlights the challenge of proving the result for even n while confirming the logic for odd n.
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Homework Statement



Find the number of ways in which an odd number of objects can be chosen from n objects.


The Attempt at a Solution



We have 2 cases-

1) n is even

nC1 + nC3 + nC5 + ... nCn-1

2) n is odd

nC1 + nC3 + nC5 + ... nCn

I think adding them will give the answer.
How do I find out the sum?
 
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Hi Abdul! :smile:

Hint: for n odd, it's easy! :wink:

(if you can't see it immediately, try a few examples … in fact, trying a few examples is often a good idea anyway)
 


I used binomial expansions and surprisingly, got both of them as 2n-1.
 
Since that's half of 2n, that's not at all surprising for odd n …

can you see why? :wink:
 


Its obvious for odd n, what about even n?
 
sorry, are you saying you can see it's obvious for odd n, or not? :confused:
 


Yeah I can see it's obvious for odd n.
In the expansion of (1+x)n, the number of terms are n+1 = even number of terms , n being odd.

Of these even number of terms, half correspond to choosing odd number of objects and half correspond to choosing an even number of objects. Sum of any half = 2n-1

If n is even ( as in the case 1 ), how do you justify 2n-1 (the answer I got)?
 
Hi Abdul! :wink:
Abdul Quadeer said:
Of these even number of terms, half correspond to choosing odd number of objects and half correspond to choosing an even number of objects. Sum of any half = 2n-1

Yes, that's right. :smile:

But I can't see an obvious way of proving it for even n

(maybe someone else can? :smile:)

though I can see a neater maths way … consider (1 + 1)n + (1 - 1)n :wink:
 
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