fghtffyrdmns said:
I have another question of inverse ln.
Let's say you have [tex]-(ln (x)+2)^{1/2}[/tex]
The domain would just be [tex]0 < x </= e^2[/tex]
In order that we be able to take the logarithm, we must have x> 0. In order to be able to take the square root, we must have [itex]ln(x)+ 2\ge 0[/itex] or [itex]ln(x)\ge -2[/itex]. Since ln is an increasing function that is the same as saying [itex]x\ge e^{-2}[/itex]. That is NOT the same as [itex]x\le e^2[/itex]! Since [itex]e^{-2}> 0[/itex], we have both [itex]x> 0[/itex] and [itex]x\ge e^{-2}[/itex] just by taking [itex]x\ge e^{-2}[/itex]. That is the domain.
The inverse of it would be [tex]x = e^{(-y^2 + 2)}[/tex]
Be careful about writing x as a function of y. If y= 3x, then x= y/3 is the
same function, not the inverse. The inverse function to y= 3x is y= x/3.
The original function is given by [itex]y= -(ln(x)+ 2)^{1/2}[/itex]. The inverse function is given by [itex]x= -(ln(y)+ 2)^{1/2}[/itex] but we want to write "y= " so we need to solve for y. Squaring both sides gives [itex]x^2= ln(y)+ 2[/itex] so that [itex]ln(y)= x^2- 2[/itex] and then [itex]y= e^{x^2- 2}[/itex]. The "-" in the original disappeared when we squared both sides. Stictly speaking, the natural domain of [itex]y= e^{x^2- 2}[/itex] is "all real numbers" but this is NOT that function:
Would the domain of the inverse function just be x < 0? which is the range of the original function.
Yes, exactly! When [itex]x= e^{-2}[/itex] in the original function, y= 0. As x increases without bound, ln(x) increases without bound and so does the square root of ln(x)+ 2. But y is the
negative of that. The range of the original function is "all x< 0" and so the domain is also, just as you say! (A function and its inverse "swap" range and domain just as the "swap" x and y.)