Finding Last Digits of 3400: Without Calculator or Euler's Totient Function

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To find the last digits of 3400, calculating 3^400 mod 1000 is essential, and using Euler's theorem simplifies the process. If 3400 is congruent to 1 mod 1000, the last three digits are indeed 001. For other numbers like 5623, applying the totient function and systematically calculating powers can help, though the approach varies based on the number. The powers of 5 mod 1000 exhibit a repeating pattern, with all powers being congruent to 625 mod 1000 after a certain point. Understanding these modular relationships is crucial for efficient calculations without a calculator.
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Homework Statement



How can I find the last 1,2 and 3 digits of 3400?

The Attempt at a Solution



I know I have to find 3400 mod 10, 100 and 1000 but I want to know how to do this without a calculator. Do I have to use Euler's totient function?

thanks in adavnce
 
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All you need is 3^(400) mod 1000. That will give you the last three digits. Sure, use the totient function and Euler's theorem. I think it's the easiest way.
 
Thanks alot! I am just wondering, when I get 3400= 1 mod 1000 by Euler's Theorem does that mean the last 3 digits are 001?

Also I kind of cheated a bit because I knew that phi(1000)=400. What can I use if I have a "random" number to calculate such as 5623? Would I just systematically go through, maybe using the the totient function and Euler's theorem, until I get something manageable?
 
Sure, if a number is equal to 1 mod 1000 then it's last three digits are 001. And 3^400 mod 1000 is a particularly easy case. 5^623 mod 1000 is harder. You could start with 5^4 mod 1000=625. Then to get 5^8 mod 1000, you square the 625 and take the result mod 1000. Then you can square again to get 5^16 mod 1000. You can get the exponent pretty high pretty fast. But it turns out the powers of 5 mod 1000 are pretty easy for another reason. Can you find it?
 
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Are the powers of 5 easy because (5,1000)=1 so you can use Euler's Theorem?
 
mcooper said:
Are the powers of 5 easy because (5,1000)=1 so you can use Euler's Theorem?

How do you figure gcd(5,1000)=1? You can't apply Euler's theorem. Just start looking at increasing powers of 5 mod 1000. There's a simple pattern.
 
Sorry that's poor, its been a long day/night. All powers of 5 are congruent to 625 mod 1000 (hence 25 mod 100). Kind of weird but kind of cool. Is there a mathematical reason/proof for this? mod 10000 they are not all the same...
 
mcooper said:
Sorry that's poor, its been a long day/night. All powers of 5 are congruent to 625 mod 1000 (hence 25 mod 100). Kind of weird but kind of cool. Is there a mathematical reason/proof for this? mod 10000 they are not all the same...

That's not true. 5^4 is congruent to 125. 5^5 is conguent to 625. It's just because 125*5 is congruent to 625 and 625*5 is congruent to 125. They keep repeating.
 

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