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Why does f attain its local maximum at r' in (p,q). Is it because we have f(x)<= f(r') for all x in (p,p+delta)?
The discussion centers on the conditions under which a function f attains its local maximum at a point r' within the interval (p, q). It is established that f(r') is greater than or equal to f(x) for all x in the sub-interval (p, p + delta), confirming that the local maximum occurs at r'. The equality condition is also acknowledged, reinforcing the understanding of local maxima in calculus.
PREREQUISITESStudents of calculus, mathematicians, and anyone interested in understanding optimization and function analysis.
We have equality, but, yes.ratio said:View attachment 292298
Why does f attain its local maximum at r' in (p,q). Is it because we have f(x)<= f(r') for all x in (p,p+delta)?