Sep 4, 2018 #1 dbennett09 Messages 2 Reaction score 0 View attachment 8367View attachment 8367 Attachments Screenshot 2018-09-04 at 10.53.25 AM.png 4.6 KB · Views: 98
Sep 4, 2018 #2 tkhunny Messages 256 Reaction score 0 Your tick marks appear to be presumptive, rather than secure. What are your thoughts?
Thread 'There are only finitely many primes' I just saw this one. If there are finitely many primes, then ##0<\prod_{p}\sin(\frac\pi p)=\prod_p\sin\left(\frac{\pi(1+2\prod_q q)}p\right)=0## Of course it is in a way just a variation of Euclid's idea, but it is a one liner. View full post »
I just saw this one. If there are finitely many primes, then ##0<\prod_{p}\sin(\frac\pi p)=\prod_p\sin\left(\frac{\pi(1+2\prod_q q)}p\right)=0## Of course it is in a way just a variation of Euclid's idea, but it is a one liner.
