MHB Finding the value at which the series converges

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The discussion focuses on using the Maclaurin series to determine the convergence of the series $$\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}$$. It is noted that this series resembles the Maclaurin series for the cosine function, specifically $\cos(\pi)$, which equals -1. The series converges for all values of $x$, as the Maclaurin series for $\cos(x)$ is valid for any real number. The key takeaway is that the series converges to -1 when evaluated at $\pi$. Overall, the convergence of the series is confirmed through its relation to the cosine function.
tmt1
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I need to use the maclaurin series to find where this series converges:

$$\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}$$

But I'm not sure how to do this.
 
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Where is $x$? As it is, the series is equivalent to $\cos(\pi)=-1$ and the MacLaurin series for $\cos(x)$ converges for all $x$.
 

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