Finding the value at which the series converges

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on determining the convergence of the Maclaurin series represented by the expression $$\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}$$. This series is equivalent to the cosine function evaluated at $\pi$, specifically $\cos(\pi) = -1$. It is established that the Maclaurin series for the cosine function converges for all real values of $x$, confirming that the series converges for $x = \pi$.

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tmt1
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I need to use the maclaurin series to find where this series converges:

$$\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}$$

But I'm not sure how to do this.
 
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Where is $x$? As it is, the series is equivalent to $\cos(\pi)=-1$ and the MacLaurin series for $\cos(x)$ converges for all $x$.
 

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