Five, Phi and Pi in one integral = −5ϕπ

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    Integral Phi Pi
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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the evaluation of the integral $$\int_{0}^{\pi\over 2}{\ln(\sin^2 x)\over \sin(2x)}\cdot \sqrt[5]{\tan(x)}\mathrm dx$$ and its relationship to the golden ratio, phi ($\phi$), and pi ($\pi$). Participants are exploring the correctness of the result and its implications.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Post 1 presents the integral and claims it evaluates to $$-5\phi \pi$$.
  • Post 2 questions the result, stating an alternative evaluation of the integral as $$-\frac{5 \pi}{\phi}$$.
  • Post 3 reiterates the alternative evaluation presented in Post 2, emphasizing the same result.
  • Post 4 introduces a relationship involving $$\sin(\pi/10)$$ and proposes a different expression that leads to $$-5\pi\phi$$.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the evaluation of the integral, with multiple competing views on the correct result remaining unresolved.

Contextual Notes

There are potential limitations in the assumptions made regarding the integral's evaluation and the definitions of the constants involved, which have not been fully explored or resolved in the discussion.

Tony1
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$$\int_{0}^{\pi\over 2}{\ln(\sin^2 x)\over \sin(2x)}\cdot \sqrt[5]{\tan(x)}\mathrm dx=-5\phi \pi$$

$\phi$ is the golden ratio

Make $u=\tan x$

$${1\over 2}\int_{0}^{\infty}u^{-{4\over 5}}\ln\left({1+u^2\over u^2}\right)\mathrm du$$

hmmm, too complicate to continue.
Any help, please. Thank you!
 
Last edited:
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Is there an error in the result? I'm getting

$$I = \int_{0}^{\pi\over 2}{\ln(\sin^2 x)\over \sin(2x)}\cdot \sqrt[5]{\tan(x)}\mathrm dx = -\frac{5 \pi}{\phi}$$.
 
Theia said:
Is there an error in the result? I'm getting

$$I = \int_{0}^{\pi\over 2}{\ln(\sin^2 x)\over \sin(2x)}\cdot \sqrt[5]{\tan(x)}\mathrm dx = -\frac{5 \pi}{\phi}$$.

Taking your substitution $$u = \tan x$$, one obtains

$$I = -\frac{1}{2}\int _0^{\infty}u^{-4/5}\ln \left( \frac{1+u^2}{u^2} \right) \mathrm d u$$.

Now taking $$\frac{1+u^2}{u^2} = q$$, the integral becomes

$$I = -\frac{1}{4}\int _1 ^{\infty} \ln q \ (q - 1)^{-11/10} \mathrm dq.$$

Let's then integrate by parts ($$ \mathrm d f = \ln q$$) and one obtains

$$I = -\frac{5}{2}\int _1 ^{\infty} q^{-1} \ (q - 1)^{-1/10} \mathrm dq.$$

One more substitution: $$1 - \dfrac{1}{q} = p$$ and one obtains

$$I = -\frac{5}{2}\int _0 ^1 p^{-1/10} \ (1 - p)^{-9/10} \mathrm dp.$$

By definition of the Beta function one reads this as

$$I =-\frac{5}{2} \beta \left( \frac{9}{10}, \frac{1}{10} \right) = -\frac{5}{2} \frac{\pi}{\sin \tfrac{\pi}{10}} = -\frac{5\pi}{\phi}$$.
 
Last edited:
Theia said:
Taking your substitution $$u = \tan x$$, one obtains

$$I = -\frac{1}{2}\int _0^{\infty}u^{-4/5}\ln \left( \frac{1+u^2}{u^2} \right) \mathrm d u$$.

Now taking $$\frac{1+u^2}{u^2} = q$$, the integral becomes

$$I = -\frac{1}{4}\int _1 ^{\infty} \ln q \ (q - 1)^{-11/10} \mathrm dq.$$

Let's then integrate by parts ($$ \mathrm d f = \ln q$$) and one obtains

$$I = -\frac{5}{2}\int _1 ^{\infty} q^{-1} \ (q - 1)^{-1/10} \mathrm dq.$$

One more substitution: $$1 - \dfrac{1}{q} = p$$ and one obtains

$$I = -\frac{5}{2}\int _0 ^1 p^{-1/10} \ (1 - p)^{-9/10} \mathrm dp.$$

By definition of the Beta function one reads this as

$$I =-\frac{5}{2} \beta \left( \frac{9}{10}, \frac{1}{10} \right) = -\frac{5}{2} \frac{\pi}{\sin \tfrac{\pi}{10}} = -\frac{5\pi}{\phi}$$.

Note $$\sin(\pi/10)={1\over 2\phi}$$

$$-{5\over 2}\cdot {\pi\over \sin(\pi/10)}=-5\pi\phi$$
 

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