MHB Five, Phi and Pi in one integral = −5ϕπ

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The integral $$\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{\ln(\sin^2 x)}{\sin(2x)} \cdot \sqrt[5]{\tan(x)} \, dx$$ is proposed to equal $$-5\phi\pi$$, where $\phi$ is the golden ratio. Some participants question the validity of this result, suggesting an alternative outcome of $$-\frac{5\pi}{\phi}$$. A key point of discussion revolves around the relationship between sine values and the golden ratio, specifically noting that $$\sin(\pi/10) = \frac{1}{2\phi}$$. The conversation emphasizes the need for clarity on the integral's evaluation and the potential error in the proposed result.
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$$\int_{0}^{\pi\over 2}{\ln(\sin^2 x)\over \sin(2x)}\cdot \sqrt[5]{\tan(x)}\mathrm dx=-5\phi \pi$$

$\phi$ is the golden ratio

Make $u=\tan x$

$${1\over 2}\int_{0}^{\infty}u^{-{4\over 5}}\ln\left({1+u^2\over u^2}\right)\mathrm du$$

hmmm, too complicate to continue.
Any help, please. Thank you!
 
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Is there an error in the result? I'm getting

$$I = \int_{0}^{\pi\over 2}{\ln(\sin^2 x)\over \sin(2x)}\cdot \sqrt[5]{\tan(x)}\mathrm dx = -\frac{5 \pi}{\phi}$$.
 
Theia said:
Is there an error in the result? I'm getting

$$I = \int_{0}^{\pi\over 2}{\ln(\sin^2 x)\over \sin(2x)}\cdot \sqrt[5]{\tan(x)}\mathrm dx = -\frac{5 \pi}{\phi}$$.

Taking your substitution $$u = \tan x$$, one obtains

$$I = -\frac{1}{2}\int _0^{\infty}u^{-4/5}\ln \left( \frac{1+u^2}{u^2} \right) \mathrm d u$$.

Now taking $$\frac{1+u^2}{u^2} = q$$, the integral becomes

$$I = -\frac{1}{4}\int _1 ^{\infty} \ln q \ (q - 1)^{-11/10} \mathrm dq.$$

Let's then integrate by parts ($$ \mathrm d f = \ln q$$) and one obtains

$$I = -\frac{5}{2}\int _1 ^{\infty} q^{-1} \ (q - 1)^{-1/10} \mathrm dq.$$

One more substitution: $$1 - \dfrac{1}{q} = p$$ and one obtains

$$I = -\frac{5}{2}\int _0 ^1 p^{-1/10} \ (1 - p)^{-9/10} \mathrm dp.$$

By definition of the Beta function one reads this as

$$I =-\frac{5}{2} \beta \left( \frac{9}{10}, \frac{1}{10} \right) = -\frac{5}{2} \frac{\pi}{\sin \tfrac{\pi}{10}} = -\frac{5\pi}{\phi}$$.
 
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Theia said:
Taking your substitution $$u = \tan x$$, one obtains

$$I = -\frac{1}{2}\int _0^{\infty}u^{-4/5}\ln \left( \frac{1+u^2}{u^2} \right) \mathrm d u$$.

Now taking $$\frac{1+u^2}{u^2} = q$$, the integral becomes

$$I = -\frac{1}{4}\int _1 ^{\infty} \ln q \ (q - 1)^{-11/10} \mathrm dq.$$

Let's then integrate by parts ($$ \mathrm d f = \ln q$$) and one obtains

$$I = -\frac{5}{2}\int _1 ^{\infty} q^{-1} \ (q - 1)^{-1/10} \mathrm dq.$$

One more substitution: $$1 - \dfrac{1}{q} = p$$ and one obtains

$$I = -\frac{5}{2}\int _0 ^1 p^{-1/10} \ (1 - p)^{-9/10} \mathrm dp.$$

By definition of the Beta function one reads this as

$$I =-\frac{5}{2} \beta \left( \frac{9}{10}, \frac{1}{10} \right) = -\frac{5}{2} \frac{\pi}{\sin \tfrac{\pi}{10}} = -\frac{5\pi}{\phi}$$.

Note $$\sin(\pi/10)={1\over 2\phi}$$

$$-{5\over 2}\cdot {\pi\over \sin(\pi/10)}=-5\pi\phi$$
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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