Fourier Transform and Parseval's Theorem

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
7 replies · 2K views
roam
Messages
1,265
Reaction score
12

Homework Statement


Using Parseval's theorem,

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} h(\tau) r(\tau) d\tau = \int^\infty_{-\infty} H(s)R(-s) ds$$

and the properties of the Fourier transform, show that the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)## is

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(\nu-s)ds$$

Homework Equations


Fourier transform for ##f(t)g(t)## is defined as:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) e^{-2 \pi \nu t} dt$$

The Attempt at a Solution


So starting from the definition of Fourier transform:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) e^{-2 \pi \nu t} dt$$

So, do we need to ignore the exponential term here? If we ignore it, we can apply Parseval's theorem to get the frequency domain:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) dt = \int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(- s) d s$$

Now, what property of the Fourier transform can I use to get ##G(-s) \implies G(\nu-s)##?

I don't understand what the ##(\nu-s)## part means, does it indicates some sort of shifting or delay in the input? :confused:

Any help is greatly appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I think you forgot an ##i## in the exponent in the definition of Fourier transform.

You cannot just ignore the exponential term in ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) e^{-2 \pi iv t} dt##

Start with ##G(v-s)## for a fixed ##v##.
Write out the formula for ##G(v-s)##, and you will note that ##G(v-s)=\mathcal F (g_v(-s))## for some function ##g_v## (##\mathcal F## denotes the Fourier transform).

Using that knowledge about ##G(v-s)##, apply Parseval's theorem to ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(v-s)ds## and see what you get ...

A little remark about terminology:
roam said:
show that the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)## is

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(\nu-s)ds$$
It is clearer when you write something like:
the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)## in ##\nu## is $$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(\nu-s)ds$$
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: roam
Thank you for your input. In ##g_v## what does the subscript ##v## mean? Should it not be ##g_t## since ##G(s)## is the Fourier transform of ##g(t)##? (In my course a function denoted by a capital letter is the Fourier transform of the function denoted by the corresponding small letter)

So from the definition, the formula for the ##G(v-s)## part is:

$$G(v-s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-i 2 \pi st} dt$$

Here I used the duality property of the Fourier transform i.e. ##F(t) \iff f(-s)##

Is this the right formula?
 
roam said:
Thank you for your input. In ##g_v## what does the subscript ##v## mean? Should it not be ##g_t## since ##G(s)## is the Fourier transform of ##g(t)##? (In my course a function denoted by a capital letter is the Fourier transform of the function denoted by the corresponding small letter)

So from the definition, the formula for the ##G(v-s)## part is:

$$G(v-s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-i 2 \pi st} dt$$

Here I used the duality property of the Fourier transform i.e. ##F(t) \iff f(-s)##

Is this the right formula?
There is no ##v## in your right hand side expression for ##G(v-s)##, so that can't be correct.

I really meant ##g_v##. Just pick one ##v## as a constant and let's work with that for a while.

In general, the definition of the Fourier transform is:
$$G(u) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-2 \pi iut} dt$$

I deliberately used another name for the variable here.
Now set ##u=v-s## in that definition. You get:
$$G(v-s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-2 \pi i(v-s)t} dt=\int^\infty_{-\infty} \Big(g(t)e^{- 2 \pi ivt}\Big)e^{-2 \pi i(-s)t} dt$$

Compare that last expression with the definition of the Fourier transform. What we have there is the Fourier transform of the function between the big brackets at the point ##-s##. So now name the function between the big brackets ##g_v##, and what we have is that:
$$g_v(t)=g(t)e^{-2 \pi ivt}$$
$$G(v-s)=\mathcal F(g_v(-s))$$
Or, if you prefer the convention of your course:
$$G(v-s)=G_v(-s)$$
Now apply this to evaluate ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(v-s)ds##, by using Parseval's theorem.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: roam
Never mind. I thought something was wrong, but I was wrong about that.

My sincere apologies for my confusion.
 
Last edited:
I see. Thank you very much for the clear explanation.

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds = \int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G_\nu (-s) ds$$

using Parseval's theorem this becomes:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g_\nu (t) dt = \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g(t) e^{-2 \pi i \nu t} dt$$

Is this then sufficient to 'show' that ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s)ds## is the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)##?
 
roam said:
I see. Thank you very much for the clear explanation.

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds = \int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G_\nu (-s) ds$$

using Parseval's theorem this becomes:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g_\nu (t) dt = \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g(t) e^{-2 \pi i \nu t} dt$$

Is this then sufficient to 'show' that ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s)ds## is the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)##?
Yes, because taking the two equations together, you now proved that for any ##\nu##: $$ \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g(t) e^{-2 \pi i \nu t}=\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds$$
The left hand side is by definition the Fourier transform of the function ##f.g## at point ##\nu##.

As an aside, ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds## is called the convolution of F and G at ##\nu##. (More here and here)
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: roam
Thank you so much for your help. That was very helpful.