Fourier Transform and Parseval's Theorem

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The discussion focuses on demonstrating that the Fourier transform of the product of two functions, f(t) and g(t), can be expressed as the integral of F(s) and G(ν-s). Participants clarify the application of Parseval's theorem and the importance of the exponential term in the Fourier transform definition. They explore the relationship between G(ν-s) and the Fourier transform of a modified function, g_v(t), leading to a clearer understanding of the convolution of F and G. Ultimately, the conclusion is reached that the integral expression indeed represents the Fourier transform of the product f(t)g(t). The conversation emphasizes the significance of proper notation and the duality property in Fourier transforms.
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Homework Statement


Using Parseval's theorem,

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} h(\tau) r(\tau) d\tau = \int^\infty_{-\infty} H(s)R(-s) ds$$

and the properties of the Fourier transform, show that the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)## is

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(\nu-s)ds$$

Homework Equations


Fourier transform for ##f(t)g(t)## is defined as:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) e^{-2 \pi \nu t} dt$$

The Attempt at a Solution


So starting from the definition of Fourier transform:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) e^{-2 \pi \nu t} dt$$

So, do we need to ignore the exponential term here? If we ignore it, we can apply Parseval's theorem to get the frequency domain:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) dt = \int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(- s) d s$$

Now, what property of the Fourier transform can I use to get ##G(-s) \implies G(\nu-s)##?

I don't understand what the ##(\nu-s)## part means, does it indicates some sort of shifting or delay in the input? :confused:

Any help is greatly appreciated.
 
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I think you forgot an ##i## in the exponent in the definition of Fourier transform.

You cannot just ignore the exponential term in ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) e^{-2 \pi iv t} dt##

Start with ##G(v-s)## for a fixed ##v##.
Write out the formula for ##G(v-s)##, and you will note that ##G(v-s)=\mathcal F (g_v(-s))## for some function ##g_v## (##\mathcal F## denotes the Fourier transform).

Using that knowledge about ##G(v-s)##, apply Parseval's theorem to ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(v-s)ds## and see what you get ...

A little remark about terminology:
roam said:
show that the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)## is

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(\nu-s)ds$$
It is clearer when you write something like:
the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)## in ##\nu## is $$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(\nu-s)ds$$
 
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Thank you for your input. In ##g_v## what does the subscript ##v## mean? Should it not be ##g_t## since ##G(s)## is the Fourier transform of ##g(t)##? (In my course a function denoted by a capital letter is the Fourier transform of the function denoted by the corresponding small letter)

So from the definition, the formula for the ##G(v-s)## part is:

$$G(v-s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-i 2 \pi st} dt$$

Here I used the duality property of the Fourier transform i.e. ##F(t) \iff f(-s)##

Is this the right formula?
 
roam said:
Thank you for your input. In ##g_v## what does the subscript ##v## mean? Should it not be ##g_t## since ##G(s)## is the Fourier transform of ##g(t)##? (In my course a function denoted by a capital letter is the Fourier transform of the function denoted by the corresponding small letter)

So from the definition, the formula for the ##G(v-s)## part is:

$$G(v-s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-i 2 \pi st} dt$$

Here I used the duality property of the Fourier transform i.e. ##F(t) \iff f(-s)##

Is this the right formula?
There is no ##v## in your right hand side expression for ##G(v-s)##, so that can't be correct.

I really meant ##g_v##. Just pick one ##v## as a constant and let's work with that for a while.

In general, the definition of the Fourier transform is:
$$G(u) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-2 \pi iut} dt$$

I deliberately used another name for the variable here.
Now set ##u=v-s## in that definition. You get:
$$G(v-s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-2 \pi i(v-s)t} dt=\int^\infty_{-\infty} \Big(g(t)e^{- 2 \pi ivt}\Big)e^{-2 \pi i(-s)t} dt$$

Compare that last expression with the definition of the Fourier transform. What we have there is the Fourier transform of the function between the big brackets at the point ##-s##. So now name the function between the big brackets ##g_v##, and what we have is that:
$$g_v(t)=g(t)e^{-2 \pi ivt}$$
$$G(v-s)=\mathcal F(g_v(-s))$$
Or, if you prefer the convention of your course:
$$G(v-s)=G_v(-s)$$
Now apply this to evaluate ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(v-s)ds##, by using Parseval's theorem.
 
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Never mind. I thought something was wrong, but I was wrong about that.

My sincere apologies for my confusion.
 
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I see. Thank you very much for the clear explanation.

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds = \int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G_\nu (-s) ds$$

using Parseval's theorem this becomes:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g_\nu (t) dt = \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g(t) e^{-2 \pi i \nu t} dt$$

Is this then sufficient to 'show' that ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s)ds## is the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)##?
 
roam said:
I see. Thank you very much for the clear explanation.

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds = \int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G_\nu (-s) ds$$

using Parseval's theorem this becomes:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g_\nu (t) dt = \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g(t) e^{-2 \pi i \nu t} dt$$

Is this then sufficient to 'show' that ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s)ds## is the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)##?
Yes, because taking the two equations together, you now proved that for any ##\nu##: $$ \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g(t) e^{-2 \pi i \nu t}=\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds$$
The left hand side is by definition the Fourier transform of the function ##f.g## at point ##\nu##.

As an aside, ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds## is called the convolution of F and G at ##\nu##. (More here and here)
 
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Thank you so much for your help. That was very helpful.
 

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