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In my quantum mechanics book it is stated that the Fourier transform of the Coulomb potential

$$\frac{e^2}{4\pi\epsilon_0 r}$$

results in

$$\frac{e^2}{\epsilon_0 q^2}$$

Where ##r## is the distance between the electrons and ##q## is the difference in wave vectors.

What confuses me, is how the Fourier transform of the first term is taken since the integral diverges at r = 0.

I hope anyone can clear this up for me.

Thanks,

Ian

EDIT: It is already solved, ##r## and ##q## need to be taken as vectors. This thread can be deleted.