girts said:
pardon me if this comes off as ignorant but
@Sorcerer, with respect to the questions you asked here about the M-M experiment etc, haven't we already found the speed of light to be finite and precise with experiments and also that it is independent from it's source with experiments, or is there something I'm missing here ?
What Ibix said here is mainly my concern:
Ibix said:
There is a mountain of evidence that SR is correct. Sorceror is thinking of minimum requirements to convince a student of this today.
Although there is a bit more to it than that. I am certainly interested in convincing students, but I'm also interested in the "lower division level" minimal amount simply theoretically speaking. Aside from assumptions about space and time not depending on location or direction, what are the minimum requirements? From what I can tell, it's that the Lorentz transformation is the correct transformation law and the speed of light is finite. (note: in this viewpoint, I am taking the Galileo transformation as a special case of the Lorentz transformation: when the speed of light is infinite)
So yeah, mostly I'm interested in convincing students and your stereotypical person who thinks that "the establishment" is missing out on some simple and obvious intuitive truth that invalidates the foundations of all of modern physics.
EDITED TO ADD: The best part is that if someone is willing to spend a little bit of money, there are kits available to duplicate the M-M experiment. As for the motion of the Earth through space, a necessary requirement for this to matter, there is a bunch of evidence for that (it's a bit obvious). I'm taking that part for granted here. The people who think the Earth doesn't orbit the sun or move through space/rotate are the type who believe the Earth is flat and that the universe was created during the Neolithic period, so they are a lost cause anyway.
But as for determining if the speed of light is finite or infinite, I'm not sure what kind of experiment is available to a lay person (I'm sure there is a way, I just haven't researched it).
And lastly, in terms of an infinite one way speed and 2c return speed, I'm not sure how you could differentiate that from just the assumption that the speed of light moves at c both ways. I'm also not sure that it matters, because you'd still end up with the Lorentz transformation in that case, if I understand it correctly (since the two way speed would still end up being c).