Function continuous in exactly the irrational points

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding a function defined on the interval (0,1) that is continuous only at the irrational points. Participants are exploring the properties of such a function and the conditions under which it can be continuous at irrationals while discontinuous at rationals.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss a proposed function where f(x) is defined as 1/n for rational x and 0 for irrational x. There are questions about demonstrating continuity at irrationals and discontinuity at rationals. Some suggest refining the function to ensure it behaves appropriately as the rationals are counted.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and questioning the initial function's validity. There are suggestions to clarify the behavior of the function near irrational points and to ensure the function is well-defined. Multiple interpretations of continuity and the nature of the rationals are being explored.

Contextual Notes

There are constraints regarding the definitions of continuity and the behavior of the function at rational versus irrational points. Participants are also considering the implications of the countability of the rationals in their arguments.

math8
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Give an example of a function f:(0,1)-->Reals which is continuous at exactly the irrational points in (0,1).

I think the function f such that f(x)=1/n if x is rational in (0,1) (x=m/n for some n not 0) and f(x)= 0 if x is irrational in (0,1) should work.
I get the reason why f is continuous at the irrationals, but what would be a convincing argument to show that f is not continuous at the rationals?

I mean, there should be an e>0 s.t. for every d>0, we have |x-xo|<d but |f(x)-f(xo)|> or eq. to e. (for every rational xo).
 
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no, the function that you have is only continuous at 0. Just think of lim(x->.5) f(x). That limit isn't well defined. What you might want to do is to exploit the countable nature of the rationals. Make it so that f(x) at rationals become increasingly small as the counting goes up.
 


Maybe I'm mistaken but I think f(x)=1/n if x is rational in (0,1) (x=m/n for some n not 0) is such that f(x) at rationals becomes increasingly small as the counting goes up.
 


math8 said:
Maybe I'm mistaken but I think f(x)=1/n if x is rational in (0,1) (x=m/n for some n not 0) is such that f(x) at rationals becomes increasingly small as the counting goes up.

That's it. Be sure and specify m/n is in lowest terms to make sure f(x) is well defined. Now can you show f(x)->0 as x->a for an irrational number a?
 


for an irrational a, f(a)= 0

Now, for every e>0 , there exists N>0 s.t.n> or eq.N d implies |f(x)|< e. (because f(x) is either 1/n or 0)
 


math8 said:
for an irrational a, f(a)= 0

Now, for every e>0 , there exists N>0 s.t.n> or eq.N d implies |f(x)|< e. (because f(x) is either 1/n or 0)

That's not very clear. Ok, e>0. Pick N>1/e. Tell me how to find a neighborhood of a where f(a)<=1/N<e. Hint: consider all of the numbers k/n where n<=N.
 


math8 said:
Maybe I'm mistaken but I think f(x)=1/n if x is rational in (0,1) (x=m/n for some n not 0) is such that f(x) at rationals becomes increasingly small as the counting goes up.

Ah, yes you are certainly right. I didn't know what I was thinking. Your solution seems good. To show how it's not continuous at rationals, you just need that between every two numbers there is an irrational number. Since any interval is uncountable and the rationals are countable.
 
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