Functionals->functions of infinite variables?

  1. If we think of a functional as a function of the infinite number of taylor coefficients of the variable function, aren't they then just normal functions, a map between a set of reals to another set of reals.
  2. jcsd
  3. mathman

    mathman 6,752
    Science Advisor
    Gold Member

    The "variable function" may not have a Taylor expansion, or if it does for part of its domain, the expansion may not hold for the rest. Simple example, L2 includes discontinuous functions, functions without derivatives, etc.
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thead via email, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Have something to add?

Draft saved Draft deleted