If we think of a functional as a function of the infinite number of taylor coefficients of the variable function, aren't they then just normal functions, a map between a set of reals to another set of reals.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

# Functionals->functions of infinite variables?

Know someone interested in this topic? Share a link to this question via email,
Google+,
Twitter, or
Facebook

Have something to add?

- Similar discussions for: Functionals->functions of infinite variables?

Loading...

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**