Fundamental frequency if string halved and tension * 4

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Halving the length of a string and increasing its tension by a factor of four results in a fundamental frequency that is four times the original frequency. The relationship between frequency, length, and tension indicates that halving the length doubles the frequency, while quadrupling the tension increases the velocity, further doubling the frequency. Thus, the overall effect is a frequency increase by a factor of four. The calculations confirm that the final frequency is indeed 4f. This conclusion aligns with the principles of wave mechanics in strings.
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Homework Statement


The fundamental frequency of vibration of a particular string is f. What would the fundamental frequency be if the length of the string were to be halved and the tension in it were to be increased by a factor of 4?

Answer: 4 f

2. The attempt at a solution
We have f = f1, 0.5 L and 4 T.

Substitute in: fn = (n / 2 L) * (√ T / μ)
f1 = (1 / 2 * 0.5 L) * (√ 4 T / μ)
f1 = (2 √ T / μ) / L
f1 = (2 v) / L
f1 L = 2 v
In general: f1 = v / (2 L) so
v / 2 = 2 v
v = 4 v
f1 = v / (2 L) so
v = 2 f1 L so
2 f1 L = 8 f1 L
f1 = 4 f1
Because f = f1 then
f = 4 f

But I am not sure whether this logic is right or not. Any help please?
 
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Yes, that is correct. One way to think about this without all the math is, if you cut the length of the rope in half, but the velocity (due to the tension and mass/unit length) stays constant, then the frequency should double since freq*wavelength = velocity. Then, if you quadruple the tension, because the velocity is dependent on the (square) root of the tension, this causes the velocity to increase by a factor of 2, and thus causing the frequency to double since the wavelength is fixed. Therefore, you've essentially doubled the frequency twice; once by cutting the string in half, and then again by quadrupling the tension. Hope that helps.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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