- #1
Niles
- 1,866
- 0
Hi all.
In my notes I wrote down from the blackboard, I wrote
[Fundemental Lemma of the Calculus of Variations] Let f : [a,b] -> R be continuous and suppose that
[tex]
\int_a^b f(t)h(t)dt = 0
[/tex]
for all [itex]h\in C_{0,0}^1([a,b], R)[/itex], where [itex]C_{0,0}^1([a,b], R)[/itex] is the space of C1 parametrized curves O : [a,b] -> R that start and end in 0.
I suspect that I missed some k's when writing this down from the blackboard. Am I correct when I say that this also works if we are in Rk?
In my notes I wrote down from the blackboard, I wrote
[Fundemental Lemma of the Calculus of Variations] Let f : [a,b] -> R be continuous and suppose that
[tex]
\int_a^b f(t)h(t)dt = 0
[/tex]
for all [itex]h\in C_{0,0}^1([a,b], R)[/itex], where [itex]C_{0,0}^1([a,b], R)[/itex] is the space of C1 parametrized curves O : [a,b] -> R that start and end in 0.
I suspect that I missed some k's when writing this down from the blackboard. Am I correct when I say that this also works if we are in Rk?