Niles
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Hi all.
In my notes I wrote down from the blackboard, I wrote
[Fundemental Lemma of the Calculus of Variations] Let f : [a,b] -> R be continuous and suppose that
<br /> \int_a^b f(t)h(t)dt = 0<br />
for all h\in C_{0,0}^1([a,b], R), where C_{0,0}^1([a,b], R) is the space of C1 parametrized curves O : [a,b] -> R that start and end in 0.
I suspect that I missed some k's when writing this down from the blackboard. Am I correct when I say that this also works if we are in Rk?
In my notes I wrote down from the blackboard, I wrote
[Fundemental Lemma of the Calculus of Variations] Let f : [a,b] -> R be continuous and suppose that
<br /> \int_a^b f(t)h(t)dt = 0<br />
for all h\in C_{0,0}^1([a,b], R), where C_{0,0}^1([a,b], R) is the space of C1 parametrized curves O : [a,b] -> R that start and end in 0.
I suspect that I missed some k's when writing this down from the blackboard. Am I correct when I say that this also works if we are in Rk?