Haorong Wu
- 421
- 90
- TL;DR
- If the interaction strength depends on the time, the gauge conditions may not be satisfied. Is this true, and how do we interpret this result?
Suppose we choose the Lorenz gauge conditions for an EM field, ##\partial_\mu A^\mu=0##. The EOMs for the field are given by ##\Box A^\mu=J^\mu##, with ##\partial_\mu J^\mu=0##.
If the interaction time is ranged from ##-\infty## to ##t##, ##A^\mu## satisfy the Lorenz gauge, because ##A^\mu(x) = \int d^4x' D_{ret}(x - x')J^\mu(x')## satisfy ##\partial_\mu A^\mu(x) = \int d^4x' \, D_{ret}(x - x') [\partial'_\mu J^\mu(x')]=0##, where ##D_{ret}(x - x')## is the retarded Green's function.
But, in reality, the interaction time should not be infinite. Therefore, suppose ##K^\mu=g(t)J^\mu##, where ##g(t) = e^{-\epsilon |t|}## is introduced to limit the interaction time to a finite range. In this case, ##\partial_\mu K^\mu=J^0\partial_0 g(t)+g(t)\partial_\mu J^\mu=J^0\partial_0 g(t)\ne 0##. Then, the Lorenz gauge conditions are not satisfied.
Is this derivation valid? How do we interpret this result?
If the interaction time is ranged from ##-\infty## to ##t##, ##A^\mu## satisfy the Lorenz gauge, because ##A^\mu(x) = \int d^4x' D_{ret}(x - x')J^\mu(x')## satisfy ##\partial_\mu A^\mu(x) = \int d^4x' \, D_{ret}(x - x') [\partial'_\mu J^\mu(x')]=0##, where ##D_{ret}(x - x')## is the retarded Green's function.
But, in reality, the interaction time should not be infinite. Therefore, suppose ##K^\mu=g(t)J^\mu##, where ##g(t) = e^{-\epsilon |t|}## is introduced to limit the interaction time to a finite range. In this case, ##\partial_\mu K^\mu=J^0\partial_0 g(t)+g(t)\partial_\mu J^\mu=J^0\partial_0 g(t)\ne 0##. Then, the Lorenz gauge conditions are not satisfied.
Is this derivation valid? How do we interpret this result?