General Relativity - Killing Vectors and Geodesics

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding geodesic equations using a specific metric in the context of general relativity. The metric provided is ds^2=-du^2+u^2dv^2, and participants are exploring the implications of using Killing vectors in this scenario.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the tangent vector to the geodesic and the application of Killing vectors. There is uncertainty about the differentiation process, particularly regarding the relationship between variables u and v. Some participants question whether to treat u and v as independent variables during differentiation.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the equations derived from the metric and Killing vectors. Some participants have shared their attempts and reasoning, while others have provided insights into the differentiation process. No consensus has been reached, but productive dialogue continues regarding the implications of treating u and v as dependent or independent variables.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference a specific past paper for context, indicating that the problem may have constraints based on its source. The discussion reflects a mix of interpretations and approaches to the problem, highlighting the complexity of the relationships between the variables involved.

Tangent87
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Hi, I'm stuck on the last bit the attached question where we're given the metric ds^2=-du^2+u^2dv^2 and have to use equation (*) to find the geodesic equations.

They tell us to use V^a=\dot{x}^a the tangent vector to the geodesic and presumably we use the three killing vectors they gave us, so then from (*) we have:

\left(V^ak_a\right)_{,b}V^b=\left(\dot{x}^ak^cg_{ac}\right)_{,b}\dot{x}^b=0
But then using the killing vector (0,1) and the metric I get the equation 2u\dot{v}\dot{u}=0 which doesn't seem right to me. Am I correct in thinking that when we partial differentiate w.r.t to u say we leave the \dot{u} term alone right?

Thanks.
 

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From the question itself we cannot assume that u is independent from v so that will change the equations a bit and you can also have \dot{u} = \frac{du}{dv} \dot{v}
 
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sgd37 said:
From the question itself we cannot assume that u is independent from v so that will change the equations a bit and you can also have \dot{u} = \frac{du}{dv} \dot{v}

Thank you for replying.

Ok so when we put k^c=(0,1) in we get:

0=\left(\dot{x}^ag_{av}\right)_{,b}\dot{x}^b=\left(\dot{v}g_{vv}\right)_{,b}\dot{x}^b=\left(\dot{v}u^2\right)_{,b}\dot{x}^b=\left(\dot{v}u^2\right)_{,u}\dot{u}+\left(\dot{v}u^2\right)_{,v}\dot{v}

So now are you saying that we when we partial differentiate w.r.t u say we have to differentiate v terms as well?
 
and vice versa yes. Can i ask where did you get this question from because it doesn't look like a past paper
 
It is, I got it from 2010 Part II paper 2 page 22:

http://www.maths.cam.ac.uk/undergrad/pastpapers/2010/Part_II/PaperII_2.pdf
 
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sgd37 said:
and vice versa yes. Can i ask where did you get this question from because it doesn't look like a past paper
Hmm okay, so now on the next line I get:

\left(\frac{dv}{du}u^2\dot{u}\right)_{,u}\dot{u} + \left(\dot{v}u^2\right)_{,v}\dot{v}=\frac{d^2v}{du^2}u^2\dot{u}^2 + 2\frac{dv}{du}u\dot{u}^2 + \frac{dv}{du}u^2\ddot{u} + \ddot{v}u^2=0Is that correct? Have you worked through it to the end sgd37?
 
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No sorry I have my own exams to worry about but of the little I did I will share

so we start from

\partial_u ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \dot{u} + \partial_v ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \dot{v}

assuming u is a function of v we can reduce this to

\frac{dv}{du} \partial_v ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \frac{du}{dv} \dot{v} + \partial_v ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \dot{v} = 2\partial_v ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \dot{v} = 0

so that we have sensible tangent vector \dot{v} \neq 0 thus \dot{v} u^2 = constant

using the same procedure for the other vectors I suspect you may arrive at the right equation but I'm not certain
 
sgd37 said:
No sorry I have my own exams to worry about but of the little I did I will share

so we start from

\partial_u ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \dot{u} + \partial_v ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \dot{v}

assuming u is a function of v we can reduce this to

\frac{dv}{du} \partial_v ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \frac{du}{dv} \dot{v} + \partial_v ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \dot{v} = 2\partial_v ( \dot{v} u^2 ) \dot{v} = 0

so that we have sensible tangent vector \dot{v} \neq 0 thus \dot{v} u^2 = constant

using the same procedure for the other vectors I suspect you may arrive at the right equation but I'm not certain

Ah I see thanks. I've worked it through now and it does come out, the key is to not try and differentiate out the brackets but just deduce that the stuff inside the brackets must be a constant.
 
glad i could help and good luck
 

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