Generalization of the magnetic moment

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the generalization of the magnetic moment and its relationship to torque in the context of a current loop within a magnetic field. Participants are exploring the mathematical definitions and implications of these concepts.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to prove that the torque is given by the equation \(\vec{\tau} = \vec{\mu} \times \vec{B}\) for a general current loop, questioning the role of additional terms in their derivation. Other participants clarify the definition of magnetic moment and discuss the implications of the integral used in its calculation. Questions about the choice of reference frame for calculating torque are also raised.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing clarifications and exploring different aspects of the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the definition of magnetic moment and the application of Stokes' theorem, but there is no explicit consensus on the resolution of the original poster's concerns.

Contextual Notes

Participants are operating under the constraints of proving relationships in electromagnetism, specifically focusing on the torque experienced by current loops in magnetic fields. The original poster expresses uncertainty about the implications of their mathematical manipulations and the relevance of reference frames.

tim_lou
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I have searched various websites... but all they have about magnetic moments is:

[tex]\vec\mu=I\vec{A}[/tex]
and
[tex]\vec\tau=\vec\mu\times\vec{B}[/tex]
but all the the sources only showed that the equation is true for rectangular loop of current.

but I need a more satisfactory answer. So I try to prove this in a general case:

I want to prove that the torque is indeed [tex]\vec\mu\times\vec{B}[/tex], when magnetic moment is defined as:
[tex]\vec\mu=I\int d\vec{A}[/tex]
(after proving that, i will try to prove the energy relation: [tex]E=-\vec\mu\cdot{\vec{B}}[/tex])

So, I forge ahead, let a closed current loop be the curve r, and a constant magnetic field B exists (I is current in the loop, tau is torque):
[tex]d\vec\tau=\vec{r}\times d\vec{F}=I \vec{r}\times (d\vec{r}\times\vec{B})[/tex]
where I is current in the wire, assume that it is constant.

[tex]\vec\tau=I\oint\vec{r}\times(d\vec{r}\times\vec{B})[/tex]

I used the triple product formula and some manipulations, then I got:
[tex]\vec\tau=I\oint\vec{r}\times{d\vec{r}}\times{\vec{B}}+I\oint\vec{r}(\vec{B}\cdot{d\vec{p})[/tex]

the first term looks like [tex]\vec\mu\times\vec{B}[/tex] but then I can't tell if the second term is zero...well, i checked the manipulation numerous times... i basically used:
[tex]\vec{r}\times{d\vec{r}}\times\vec{B}=d\vec{r}(\vec{B}\cdot\vec{r})-\vec{r}(\vec{B}\cdot{d\vec{r}})[/tex]

and
[tex]\vec{r}\times{}(d\vec{r}\times\vec{B})=d\vec{r}(\vec{r}\cdot\vec{B})-\vec{B}(\vec{r}\cdot{d\vec{r}})[/tex]


when integrating, B(r * dr) goes to zero since it is a closed loop.
Hence,
[tex]\vec\tau=I\oint\vec{r}\times{d\vec{r}}\times{\vec{B}}+I\oint\vec{r}(\vec{B}\cdot{d\vec{p})=\vec\mu\times\vec{B}+I\oint\vec{r}(\vec{B}\cdot{d\vec{p})[/tex].

I just changed the integrand.

now I'm stuck...supposedly, torque=mu cross magnetic field. but what is the second term of the integral doing there? perhaps the formula for the torque on any closed current loop is not simply mu cross B?

Questions: what frame should I use to calculate the torque? does it matter? should I choose the center of mass frame? Is the torque always the same regardless of what reference frame one is in?

edited: clarified my intentions.
 
Last edited:
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Hi, I don't know what you're trying to do here but if as the title of the thread suggest, you're looking for the general definition of the magnetic moment of a current loop, it is the following thing:

Given a current loop in which circulates a current I, the magnetic moment is the vector

[tex]\vec{\mu}=I\int\hat{n}dA[/tex]

where the integral is taken over any surface whose boundaries are the current loop itself (the result is independent of the choice of the surface). [itex]\hat{n}[/itex] denotes the vector normal to the surface.
 
I'm trying to prove that the torque is indeed mu cross A. I should've specified that. sorry about that.
 
[itex]\tau =I\oint{\bf r\times(dr\times B)}\\<br /> =I\oint{\bf dr(r\cdot B)}<br /> -I\oint{\bf B(r\cdot dr)}.[/itex]
The second integral vanishes for constant B.
 
For the first integral:
[itex] \oint{\bf (r\cdot B)dr}=\int_S{\bf dS\times\nabla(r\cdot B)}<br /> ={\bf S}\times{\bf B}.[/itex]
 
Thx, Meir, it looks rather simple... Can you tell me what theorem you used? I am currently learning vector calculus and I'm not that familiar with all those different theorems (stokes, greens...).
 
What Meir used in his last post is a corollary of Stokes theorem. It's a nice exercise proving it.
 

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