Geodesics with arbitrary parametrization

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the characterization of geodesics in a manifold using arbitrary parametrization. Participants explore the conditions under which a curve can be classified as a geodesic, examining the relationship between acceleration and velocity in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes a condition for a curve to be geodesic involving a specific system of equations relating acceleration and velocity.
  • Another participant suggests that a curve is geodesic if the acceleration is proportional to the velocity, providing an alternative perspective on the initial condition proposed.
  • A third participant introduces a definition of geodesics that does not require the connection to be derived from a Riemann metric, suggesting that the proportionality of acceleration and velocity may not be an independent fact but rather a consequence of this definition.
  • A later reply affirms that the definitions of geodesics discussed are equivalent, indicating that if proportionality holds, one can reparametrize the curve to achieve zero acceleration.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying definitions and conditions for geodesics, indicating that multiple competing views remain without a clear consensus on the implications of these definitions.

Contextual Notes

The discussion involves assumptions about the nature of the connection and the parametrization of curves, which may affect the interpretations of geodesics. The equivalence of definitions and the implications of proportionality are also points of contention.

wrobel
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Let ##x=(x^1,\ldots,x^m)## be local coordinates in a manifold ##M##; and let ##\{\Gamma^i_{jk}(x)\}## be a connection. Assume that we have a curve ##x=x(t),\quad \dot x\ne 0##. Is this curve geodesic or not?
My guess is that the answer is "yes" iff for all ##k,n## the function ##x(t)## satisfies the following system
$$\dot x^k(\ddot x^n+\Gamma^n_{rj}\dot x^r\dot x^j)=\dot x^n(\ddot x^k+\Gamma^k_{rj}\dot x^r\dot x^j).$$
In my taste this system looks strange. Or not?
 
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wrobel said:
Let ##x=(x^1,\ldots,x^m)## be local coordinates in a manifold ##M##; and let ##\{\Gamma^i_{jk}(x)\}## be a connection. Assume that we have a curve ##x=x(t),\quad \dot x\ne 0##. Is this curve geodesic or not?
My guess is that the answer is "yes" iff for all ##k,n## the function ##x(t)## satisfies the following system
$$\dot x^k(\ddot x^n+\Gamma^n_{rj}\dot x^r\dot x^j)=\dot x^n(\ddot x^k+\Gamma^k_{rj}\dot x^r\dot x^j).$$
In my taste this system looks strange. Or not?
Well, when it comes to your taste only you can say if it is strange or not. It is not strange of you notice the following: a curve is geodesic if the acceleration is proportional to the velocity i.e. ##a^i=\lambda v^i##. Equivalently (eliminating lambda) you have ##v^ja^i=v^ia^j##, which is your "strange" formula.
 
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Ok, thanks. I employed the following definition of geodesic: the geodesic is a curve that can be parametrized such that ##x=x(s),##
$$x^i_{ss}+\Gamma^i_{kj} x^k_s x^j_s=0.$$ Here ##\Gamma## is not obliged to be generated by a Riemann metric.
I suspect that your remark about proportionality of the acceleration and the velocity is not an independent fact but follows from this definition by the same argument as I used. Anyway that is good that the formula from #1 does not contradict to your intuition. Thus it must be correct.
 
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Yes, they are equivalent definitions. If you have the proportionality, you can reparametrize to get that the acceleration is zero.
 

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