Germain Primes and the Homogenous Integer Function Q(x,y)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of Germain primes and the homogenous integer function Q(x,y) as defined in a mathematical formula related to polynomial expansions. Participants explore the implications of the formula and seek proofs or clarifications regarding the function Q(x,y) and its degree.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Post 1 introduces a formula involving Q(x,y) and suggests a specific form for Q(x,y) based on different values of p, questioning the existence of a straightforward proof.
  • Post 2 challenges the notation used in the formula, questioning the meaning of x=y and suggesting that Q(x,y) might actually be of degree p-2 instead of p-3.
  • Post 3 corrects earlier errors regarding the formula and reaffirms the degree of Q(x,y) as p-3, while seeking professional help for proving the proposed form of Q(x,y).
  • Post 4 provides a definition of Q(x,y) and proposes an induction approach to demonstrate properties related to the divisibility of terms, suggesting a more complex problem than initially presented.
  • Post 5 expresses gratitude for the responses received.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the degree of Q(x,y) and the correct formulation of the initial equation. There is no consensus on the proof methods or the assumptions made regarding the variables involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential errors in notation and assumptions, particularly regarding the degree of Q(x,y) and the implications of the formula. The discussion remains open-ended with various interpretations and proposed methods of proof.

vantheman
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Reference: www.mathpages.com/home367.htm[/URL]
On page 2 of reference the formula is given
(x+y)^p - x^p - y^p = pxy(x=y)Q(x,y) where Q(x,y) is a homogenous integer function of degree p-3.
If we insert a number of different value of p into the equation, it appears that
Q(x,y) = (x^2 = xy + y^2)^((p-3)/2)

Is there an easy way to prove this without getting lost in infinite series calculations, or is there a proof already in print?
 
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You seem in a much better position to investigate this than anybody else, particularly since your reference can not be found.

(x+y)^p - x^p - y^p = pxy(x=y)Q(x,y) where Q(x,y) is a homogenous integer function of degree p-3.

Are you sure you mean to write x=y? If so what is the point of Q(x,y)? Assuming you don't mean x=y, the Q(x,y) appears to be of degree p-2. Because we subtracted those of degree p, and pulled out a pxy from Q(x,y,) that leaves degree p-2.
 
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Sorry for the errors. The correct web address is
www.mathpages.com/home/kmath367.htm[/URL]

The equal sign in the formula should have been "+" not "=". I neglected to hit the shift key.
I think p-3 is correct. When you substact x^p and y^p from the expansion, the results have a factor of pxy, so the x^p in now at the p-2 level. However, the remaining equation is divisible by (x+y), and this brings it to the p-3 level.

I'm an amateur looking for professional help. Is there an easy way to prove that

Q(x,y) = (x^2 + xy + y^2)^((n-3)/2) ?
 
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I think you are assuming too much from other people here. It does help to state the definition of Q(x,y)

[tex]Q(x,y) = \frac{(x+y)^P-(x^P+y^P)}{(xy)(x+y)p}[/tex]

I thought it enough of a problem, letting p-1 = u, to show that p divides all terms: [tex](x+y)^u -\frac{x^u+y^u}{x+y}[/tex]
This can be found by induction on k: [tex]\frac{(p-1)!}{k!(p-1-k)!} \equiv (-1)^k Mod p[/tex]

So you maybe looking at an induction problem on n.
 
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Thank you. It's very much appreciated.
 

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