Given operator, show the Hamiltonian

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the operator \(\hat{P}_r\) defined as \(-i\hbar\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)\) and the task of showing the Hamiltonian \(\hat{H}=\frac{1}{2m}(\hat{P}^2_r+\frac{\hat{L}^2}{r^2})\). Participants are exploring the implications of squaring the momentum operator and its effects on the wave function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to derive \(\hat{P}^2_r\) and are questioning why the term appears as \(\frac{1}{r}\) instead of \(\frac{1}{r^2}\) when squared. There are discussions about the proper application of operator multiplication and the treatment of derivatives.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the operator's definition and the need for careful algebraic manipulation. Some guidance has been offered regarding the composition of operators and the importance of not making presumptions in the calculations.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of the problem statement and are focused on understanding the mathematical structure of the operators involved. There is an emphasis on not skipping steps in the derivation process.

spacetimedude
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Homework Statement


Given [tex]\hat{P}_r\psi=-i\hbar\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex], show [tex]\hat{H}=\frac{1}{2m}(\hat{P}^2_r+\frac{\hat{L}^2}{r^2})[/tex]

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


The solution starts out with [tex]\hat{P}^2\psi=-\hbar^2\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex] but I am not sure why it's 1/r isntead of 1/r^2 when I square P?

Thank you
 
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spacetimedude said:

Homework Statement


Given [tex]\hat{P}_r\psi=-i\hbar\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex], show [tex]\hat{H}=\frac{1}{2m}(\hat{P}^2_r+\frac{\hat{L}^2}{r^2})[/tex]

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


The solution starts out with [tex]\hat{P}^2\psi=-\hbar^2\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex] but I am not sure why it's 1/r isntead of 1/r^2 when I square P?

Thank you

Write ##\hat{P_r}^2 \psi = \hat{P_r} \hat{P_r}\psi## out in full.
 
PeroK said:
Write ##\hat{P_r}^2 \psi = \hat{P_r} \hat{P_r}\psi## out in full.
[itex]\hat{P}_r\hat{P}_r\psi=-\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\psi[/itex]. Then do we just multiply in r/r into the right hand side?
EDIT: Probably not because can't just multiply something in the derivative
 
spacetimedude said:
[itex]\hat{P}_r\hat{P}_r\psi=-\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\psi[/itex]. Then do we just multiply in r/r into the right hand side?
EDIT: Probably not because can't just multiply something in the derivative

Yes, was just going to say. You need to focus on how ##P## is defined (literally) and calculate ##P^2##. No short cuts, no presumptions.

For example, where did the ##i##'s go? You presumed those away (with no ill effects), but you wrongly presumed other things away!
 
PeroK said:
Yes, was just going to say. You need to focus on how ##P## is defined (literally) and calculate ##P^2##. No short cuts, no presumptions.

For example, where did the ##i##'s go? You presumed those away (with no ill effects), but you wrongly presumed other things away!
Is it right to assume, in the question, [itex]\hat{P}_r\psi=-i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\psi[/itex]? Then if we disregard the ##\psi##, then it's just multiplying two momentum operators and [itex](-i\hbar)(-i\hbar)\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}[/itex] and put the ##\psi## to both sides and get what I had in the previous comment?
 
spacetimedude said:
Is it right to assume, in the question, [itex]\hat{P}_r\psi=-i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\psi[/itex]? Then if we disregard the ##\psi##, then it's just multiplying two momentum operators and [itex](-i\hbar)(-i\hbar)\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}[/itex] and get what I had in the previous comment?

Given [tex]\hat{P}_r\psi=-i\hbar\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex]
 
PeroK said:
Given [tex]\hat{P}_r\psi=-i\hbar\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex]
Hmm, what would ##\hat{P}_r## be in our case?
 
spacetimedude said:
Hmm, what would ##\hat{P}_r## be in our case?

You're given the ##\hat{P_r}## above. What is the square of that operator?

In fact, you are given ##\hat{P_r}^2## as well.

Your question was "why?"
 
PeroK said:
You're given the ##\hat{P_r}## above. What is the square of that operator?
If I square the right side, wouldn't it square ##\psi## as well? I have [tex]\hat{P}^2_r\psi=-\hbar^2\frac{1}{r^2}(\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi))^2[/tex]
 
  • #10
spacetimedude said:
If I square the right side, wouldn't it square ##\psi## as well? I have [tex]\hat{P}^2_r\psi=-\hbar^2\frac{1}{r^2}(\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi))^2[/tex]

Look, to get there you have done about 10 algebraic steps in your head. Some correctly, some wrongly. You need to focus on what you have, write it out in full, no presumptions, one step at a time and see what you get.
 
  • #11
PeroK said:
Look, to get there you have done about 10 algebraic steps in your head. Some correctly, some wrongly. You need to focus on what you have, write it out in full, no presumptions, one step at a time and see what you get.
[tex]\hat{P}_r\psi=-i\hbar\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex]
[tex]\hat{P}_r^2\psi=(-i\hbar)^2\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex]
[tex]\hat{P}^2_r\psi=-\hbar^2(\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi))^2[/tex]
[tex]\hat{P}^2_r\psi=-\hbar^2\frac{1}{r^2}(\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi))^2[/tex]
This is what I have on my paper. I don't think I am assuming anything?
 
  • #12
spacetimedude said:
[tex]\hat{P}_r\psi=-i\hbar\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex]
[tex]\hat{P}_r^2\psi=(-i\hbar)^2\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi)[/tex]
[tex]\hat{P}^2_r\psi=-\hbar^2(\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi))^2[/tex]
[tex]\hat{P}^2_r\psi=-\hbar^2\frac{1}{r^2}(\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}}(r\psi))^2[/tex]
This is what I have on my paper. I don't think I am assuming anything?

Okay, your mistake was more fundamental. The product of operators is composition:

##\hat{P}_r^2\psi = \hat{P}_r(\hat{P}_r \psi) = -i \hbar \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}} (r \hat{P}_r \psi) = -i \hbar \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}} (r[-i \hbar \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}} (r \psi)])##
 
  • #13
PeroK said:
Okay, your mistake was more fundamental. The product of operators is composition:

##\hat{P}_r^2\psi = \hat{P}_r(\hat{P}_r \psi) = -i \hbar \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}} (r \hat{P}_r \psi) = -i \hbar \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}} (r[-i \hbar \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial{r}} (r \psi)])##
Ah got it! Thank you very much :)
 

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