Going from a sum to an integral

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the transition from a summation over partitions of an interval to an integral, specifically examining the expression involving the sum of products of differences of partition points. The original poster seeks to verify that this expression equals \(\frac{1}{2}t^2\) as \(n\) approaches infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the limit process as \(n\) approaches infinity and discuss the implications of partition sizes approaching zero. There are attempts to connect the summation to double integrals and to verify the reasoning behind the limit transitions.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered insights into the limit process and the behavior of the sums involved, while others question the validity of certain assumptions and the clarity of the notation used. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of the partitioning method and its relation to the original problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of ensuring that not only does \(n\) approach infinity, but that the largest interval in the partition also approaches zero. There is mention of the context being part of a larger proof in stochastic analysis, which adds complexity to the discussion.

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Homework Statement



This isn't a problem, it is just a small verification I need in a much larger proof.

Over the interval [0,t] we define a partition:
0 = s_0 < s_1 < \ldots < s_{n-1} < s_n = t

I have:
<br /> \sum_{i&lt;j}(s_{j+1} - s_j)(s_{i+1} - s_i)<br />

Homework Equations



What I need is for this to be equal to
\frac{1}{2}t^2

The Attempt at a Solution



When we pass to the limit, n\rightarrow\infty, I think we get something like
\int_0^t\int_0^sduds = \int_0^tsds = \frac{1}{2}t^2
but I am unable to show the connection.

This seems reasonable to me since we have the i&lt;j in the sum.

Any hints in the right direction will be appreciated. If you can just verify that I can do this, that will also be okay. :)
 
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MrGandalf said:

Homework Statement



This isn't a problem, it is just a small verification I need in a much larger proof.

Over the interval [0,t] we define a partition:
0 = s_0 &lt; s_1 &lt; \ldots &lt; s_{n-1} &lt; s_n = t

I have:
<br /> \sum_{i&lt;j}(s_{j+1} - s_j)(s_{i+1} - s_i)<br />

Homework Equations



What I need is for this to be equal to
\frac{1}{2}t^2

The Attempt at a Solution



When we pass to the limit, n\rightarrow\infty, I think we get something like
\int_0^t\int_0^sduds = \int_0^tsds = \frac{1}{2}t^2
but I am unable to show the connection.

This seems reasonable to me since we have the i&lt;j in the sum.

Any hints in the right direction will be appreciated. If you can just verify that I can do this, that will also be okay. :)

One thing you have to be careful with in limits like this is to make sure that all intervals "lengths" (i.e. s_{i+1}-s_i) are going to zero as n goes to infinity. In other words it's not just the fact that n goes to infinity, but also the fact that the largest interval goes to zero which is important.

I'm still thinking about your full question.
 
Last edited:
Hi, stevenb, thanks for answering. But I think I got it.

I will edit this post with my full answer, so you don't waste your precious time verifying this for me.

Using the rule of a squared sum, which is what I started with:

<br /> \left(\sum_i a_i\right)^2 = \sum_i a^2 + 2\sum_{i&lt;j}a_ia_j<br />

In my case, every [ltex]a[/ltex] corresponds with a partition of the interval. So for the first term on the right hand side:
<br /> \sum_i (s_{i+1} - s_i)^2 \leq \max_i\Delta s_i\sum_i (s_{i+1} - s_i) = \max_i\Delta s_i(t) \rightarrow 0 <br />
as n\rightarrow\infty since \Delta s_i\rightarrow 0. Also used that I have a telescoping sum.

Passing to the limit in the rule of sums I have over
<br /> \left(\int_0^t ds\right)^2 = 0 + 2\int_0^t\int_0^sduds<br />
which works as a verification for me, because this is something I have used before. (It works for reasonable functions f as well).

On the left side, when we integrate:
<br /> \left(\int_0^tds\right)^2 = t^2<br />

On the right side:
<br /> 2\int_0^t\int_0^sduds = 2\int_0^tsds = 2(\frac{1}{2}t^2) = t^2.<br />
Greeeat success! :)

This doesn't count as a proof or anything, but this sure is a strong indication that I can do this.
 
Last edited:
It's not clear to me why you are saying \sum_i a_i^2 is equal to zero in the limit.
 
I am summing the square of of many small intervals (s_{j+1} - s_j) := \Delta s_j.

I take the biggest partition and multiply ever term in the sum with that instead, and that is where I get the inequality:
<br /> (s_{j+1} - s_j)^2 = (\Delta s_j)^2 \leq \max_k(\Delta s_k)\Delta s_j<br />

When I pass to the limit, the maximum partition becomes arbitrarily small, so the entire sum vanishes.

I know I can do this since the professor has used this exact argument a number of times in similar derivations. :)
 
MrGandalf said:
I am summing the square of of many small intervals (s_{j+1} - s_j) := \Delta s_j.

I take the biggest partition and multiply ever term in the sum with that instead, and that is where I get the inequality:
<br /> (s_{j+1} - s_j)^2 = (\Delta s_j)^2 \leq \max_k(\Delta s_k)\Delta s_j<br />

When I pass to the limit, the maximum partition becomes arbitrarily small, so the entire sum vanishes.

I know I can do this since the professor has used this exact argument a number of times in similar derivations. :)

I agree that each individual term is zero, but aren't you then doing an infinite sum of terms? Wouldn't this then potentially become a finite-valued sum in itself?
 
Last edited:
Hmmm, not sure. But do we have to worry about that when we have showed that it has an upper bound of 0? (Which also works for the absolute value I think, so it can't be negative).

Also, the "result" I reached over isn't really very solid, as it didn't work when I tried inserting x^2, but I think it holds for my case so I'm golden!
 
MrGandalf said:
Hmmm, not sure. But do we have to worry about that when we have showed that it has an upper bound of 0? (Which also works for the absolute value I think, so it can't be negative).

Also, the "result" I reached over isn't really very solid, as it didn't work when I tried inserting x^2, but I think it holds for my case so I'm golden!

I think you are on the right track and I think I follow what you are trying to do. It seems to work out, but I'm not convinced that someone else will follow your notation and logic.

I can see the first term going to zero in the limit, but you should show this clearly as a limit.

It's easier if we consider equally divided intervals as follows.

\lim_{n \to \infty}\sum_i a_i^2 = \lim_{n \to \infty}\sum_i(t/n)^2 =<br /> \lim_{n \to \infty}(t/n)^2\sum_i 1= \lim_{n \to \infty}(t/n)^2 n =\lim_{n \to \infty}t^2/n =0

Doing it for unequal intervals as a general case requires greater care and again the notation should show that not only is the number of intervals going to infinity, but the largest interval is going to zero. (I think you are doing that, but it just is a little unclear in the notation.)
 
Last edited:
Yes, I agree, and your reasoning seems a bit nicer.

However, I'm not free to choose the intervals as I please, since I have derived them from the expectation of an elementary approximation of a Brownian motion. In addition this is just a small sub problem I ran into during a 7 page proof in stochastic analysis, so the real issue here isn't the various analysis details. :-)

But thanks for your answers! They were helpful.
 

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