Gravitational Coupling Constant: Answers & Derivation

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The gravitational coupling constant is a topic of confusion, with some sources stating it is dimensionless and proportional to Newton's constant G, while others suggest it is proportional to the square root of G. The relationship between the coupling constant and G can vary based on definitions, with one definition relating it to the mass ratio of electron to proton, and another considering the inverse of the proton mass as the coupling constant in the Lagrangian. The discussion highlights that the dimensionality of the coupling constant affects the renormalizability of general relativity, with dimensionless couplings requiring different arguments to demonstrate nonrenormalizability. Understanding these definitions and their implications is crucial for grasping the complexities of gravitational interactions. The conversation emphasizes the need for clarity in definitions when discussing gravitational coupling.
latentcorpse
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Perhaps I'm confusing two different things but I've read online (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gravitational_coupling_constant) that the gravitational coupling constant is dimensionless and proportional to Newton's constant G.

However, I have also read that the gravitational coupling constant is proportional to the square root of G, and since in a 4d theory, G has mass dimension -2 (can see from an Einstein Hilbert action), the coupling will have dimension -1 and this is the reason GR can't be renormalised.

My questions are:

1, Which of these are correct?

2, How do we derive the relationship between the coupling and G?

Thanks.
 
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It depends on the definition. You can see that Wikipedia defines the coupling constant as \alpha_G = m_e / m_p, whereas normally you would call 1/m_p as the coupling constant, as it's what's in front of the interaction term in the Lagrangian.
 
clamtrox said:
It depends on the definition. You can see that Wikipedia defines the coupling constant as \alpha_G = m_e / m_p, whereas normally you would call 1/m_p as the coupling constant, as it's what's in front of the interaction term in the Lagrangian.

Ok. Well now the 2nd definition makes sense. How can we see nonrenormalizability in the first case, where we have a dimensionless coupling? Presumably we need a different argument - looking at the superficial degree of divergence or something?
 

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