Halmos-Generalized Version of Associative Law

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the generalized version of the associative law for unions as presented by Halmos, specifically in the context of set families. Participants are exploring the implications of the notation and the structure of unions over different domains.

Discussion Character

  • Homework-related
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion about why the expression presented by Halmos is considered a generalized version of the associative law for unions, questioning whether a specific sequence is necessary for taking unions over different sets.
  • The same participant notes that the expression they are trying to understand is unclear, particularly in its formatting.
  • Another participant points out that the union of sets on both sides of the equation appears to be formed in different orders, suggesting that the left side implies a sequential union while the right side suggests a simultaneous union of multiple sets.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not appear to reach a consensus on the interpretation of Halmos's statement, with ongoing confusion and differing perspectives on the structure of the unions involved.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations in the clarity of the expression due to formatting issues, which may affect participants' understanding of the underlying concepts. The discussion also reflects uncertainty regarding the assumptions needed for the generalized associative law to hold.

sammycaps
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I posted this in the homework section, but I think it probably belongs here.

So Halmos says in Section 9 on families, "Suppose, for instance, that {Ij} is a family of sets with domain J, say; write K=UjIj and let {Ak} be a family of sets with domain K. Is it then not difficult to prove that, Uk∈ KAk=Uj∈ J(Ui∈ IjAi); this is the generalized version of the associative law for unions

So, I'm just trying to wrap my head around why this is the generalized version of the associative law for unions. Do we have to assign some kind of sequence for the way we take the union over K that somehow transfers to the way we take union over J and Ij? This may be a dumb question, but I'm a bit confused.
 
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sammycaps said:
I posted this in the homework section, but I think it probably belongs here.

So Halmos says in Section 9 on families, "Suppose, for instance, that {Ij} is a family of sets with domain J, say; write K=UjIj and let {Ak} be a family of sets with domain K. Is it then not difficult to prove that, Uk∈ KAk=Uj∈ J(Ui∈ IjAi); this is the generalized version of the associative law for unions

So, I'm just trying to wrap my head around why this is the generalized version of the associative law for unions. Do we have to assign some kind of sequence for the way we take the union over K that somehow transfers to the way we take union over J and Ij? This may be a dumb question, but I'm a bit confused.

Uk∈ KAk=Uj∈ J(Ui∈ IjAi)

Above expression is very unclear.
 
Oh, my bad, when I copy pasted, the formatting was lost in translation. Fixed.
 
It looks like you are forming the union of Ak on both sides of the equation, but in a different order on each side. On the left (since there are no parentheses), the order seems to be one at a time, while on the right you are taking unions of a bunch at a time and then union of the bunches.
 

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