Harmonic Crystal and Bogoliubov trasformation

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of the Bogoliubov transformation in quantum mechanics, specifically in the context of harmonic crystals. The transformation is expressed through the operator $\hat{U}(q)$, which acts on the vacuum state $|0\rangle$. By utilizing the derivative operator $\hat{a}_q' = \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}q}\hat{a}_q$ and applying the chain rule, the relationship $\hat{a}_q'|0\rangle = 0$ is established, indicating that the transformed annihilation operator annihilates the vacuum state. This conclusion is derived from the properties of the unitary operator $\hat{U}(q)$ and its action on the vacuum state.

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Homework Statement
I just need a hint to solve the fifth question of this exercise. I have already solved the others
Relevant Equations
$$a_q'=\frac{1}{\sqrt {2}}\left(u_q\sqrt{\frac{M\omega_q'}{\hbar}}+ip_{-q}\frac{1}{\sqrt{M\omega_q'\hbar}}\right)
\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,

a_q'^\dagger=\frac{1}{\sqrt {2}}\left(u_-q\sqrt{\frac{M\omega_q'}{\hbar}}-ip_q\frac{1}{\sqrt{M\omega_q'\hbar}}\right) $$
I thought about writing $$a_q'|0'> =0$$ then develop the U operator in series, after I don't know how to proceed
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.One approach is to use the definition of the derivative operator, $\hat{a}_q' = \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}q}\hat{a}_q$. Then, by applying the chain rule, we can write $$\hat{a}_q'|0\rangle = \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}q}\left(\hat{U}^\dagger(q)\hat{a}_0\hat{U}(q)|0\rangle\right) = \hat{U}^\dagger(q)\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}q}\left(\hat{a}_0\hat{U}(q)|0\rangle\right).$$Using the fact that $\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}q}\hat{U}(q)=\dot{\hat{U}}(q)\hat{U}^{-1}(q)$, and the fact that $\hat{U}|0\rangle=|0\rangle$ for all $q$, we can then rewrite the above equation as$$\hat{a}_q'|0\rangle = \hat{U}^\dagger(q)\dot{\hat{U}}(q)\hat{U}^{-1}(q)\hat{a}_0|0\rangle.$$Now, since $\hat{U}|0\rangle=|0\rangle$, we have $\hat{U}^{-1}|0\rangle=|0\rangle$ as well, which means that $\hat{a}_0|0\rangle=0$. Thus, we can conclude that$$\hat{a}_q'|0\rangle = 0.$$
 

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