Harmonics, Notes, Beat frequency

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When an instrument plays a note, it produces a combination of harmonics determined by its configuration, with each note sharing the same set of harmonics across different instruments. While theoretically, a wavelength can have infinite harmonics due to the formula f=nv/2L, only a finite number are audible due to the decreasing amplitude of higher harmonics and the limits of human hearing. The absence of beat frequency between harmonics occurs because their frequencies may not be close enough, and any beats that do occur do not create new sounds. The distinct sound of each instrument arises from variations in amplitude and phase of the harmonics, even when playing the same fundamental frequency. Understanding these concepts clarifies the relationship between harmonics, beat frequency, and the unique timbre of instruments.
Bengo
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Homework Statement


When an instrument plays a note, the resulting sound is a combination of all the possible harmonics for that instrument in its momentary configuration. For instance, a musician changes notes on a violin by pressing the strings against the neck of the instrument, thus shortening the string length and changing the possible harmonics. A given shortened string will play at one time all the possible harmonics allowable by its string length. A given note is the same set of harmonics for all instruments.

1. Doesn't a wavelength have an infinite possibility of harmonics?

2. Why is there no beat frequency if each harmonic has a different frequency.

These aren't actual questions from my study books but they are really confusing to me.

Homework Equations



1. f=nv/2L

2. beat frequency= abs (f1=f2)

The Attempt at a Solution



1. My reasoning for thinking that there is an infinite number of possible harmonics is that you can keep increasing n in f=nv/2L.

2. Maybe there is no beat frequency because the frequencies are not close enough together or maybe the fundamental frequency "envelopes" the rest of the harmonic frequencies?
 
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Bengo said:
1. Doesn't a wavelength have an infinite possibility of harmonics?

2. Why is there no beat frequency if each harmonic has a different frequency.

1. My reasoning for thinking that there is an infinite number of possible harmonics is that you can keep increasing n in f=nv/2L.

In theory that is correct, but the amplitude of the harmonics usually decreases as n increases, and also you can only hear a finite number of harmonics because of the limited range of human hearing (about 20 Hz to 20000 Hz).

The number of audible harmonics in the sound of different instruments can vary from only 2 or 3, up to more than 30.

2. Maybe there is no beat frequency because the frequencies are not close enough together or maybe the fundamental frequency "envelopes" the rest of the harmonic frequencies?
From your formula, the beat frequency between two harmonics m and n is the same frequency as another harmonic, abs(m-n). So "beats between harmonics" don't create anything new in the sound.
 
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Bengo said:
1.
A given note is the same set of harmonics for all instruments.


No. The thing that distinguishes one instrument from another, all playing the same fundamental frequency (e.g. A=440 Hz which is A above middle C) is the variation in amplitude and phase of the various harmonics.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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