Originally posted by Chemicalsuperfreak
So why aren't there a proportionate number of minorities in colleges and corporate boardrooms? There are two explanations that I can think of. One is that it is a racist society, that's what I believe. Or two, blacks have the same opportunity, but can't compete do to some inferiority. So which is it? What's your explanation?
On the one hand, the argument for AA centers around the notion that individuals to do not come from identical situations, and social circumstances such as socioeconomic status and race play a large role in the extent to which an individual has the opportunity to have an education that is both equally fair to all participants and good in quality. I am definitely in agreement with this idea, but if it is to be held seriously it must be taken into consideration for every claim we make about the status of individuals in a society. With this in mind, I would simply like to introduce a third possible factor that may play a role in, although not determine completely, the distributions of socioeconomic status we see in academia and the workplace.
For the sake of argument I will focus on socioeconomic status here-- it's easy enough to at least imagine a society where racism does not exist, but differing levels of socioeconomic status would seem to be an inevitable fact of a capitalist economy. Race is only implicated to the extent that a larger percentage of minorities belong to low socioeconomic classes than do non-minorities in our society.
Now suppose there is some ideal capitalist society where racism does not exist, and the statuses of the socioeconomically disadvantaged are given the ideal amount of consideration when it comes to college admissions, hirings, etc. That is, for person A with a low socioeconomic status and person B with high socioeconomic status, suppose that A is given the perfect amount of consideration such that s/he is on exactly equal footing with B-- in other words, the disadvantages of B are perfectly balanced out in all considerations of merit, as if in fact B had come from the same socioeconomic class as A, and so they can truly be compared fairly to each other purely in terms of their personal merit, with all underlying social factors effectively canceled out.
Let L be the set of all individuals coming from a low socioeconomic status and H be the set of all individuals coming from a high socioeconomic status. Even given the idealistic and impossible set of considerations above, could we expect to see a ratio R
work of people from L to people from H in academia and higher positions in the workplace statistically equivalent to the ratio R
population of |L|/|H|? Certainly R
work would be much closer to R
population than it is in our own society, but that is not the question here. According to the claim above, we should expect to see R
work = R
population, and if we don't, then it must be indicative of some kind of systematic bias.
But could it at least be possible, given the above ideal situation, that R
work is still less than R
population? I think the answer is, possibly yes. The reason I say this is that it is critical that we recognize all of the social influences that go into determining a person's future. Included in these social influences is not just effects on education and opportunity, but also the unique attitude that comes with being a member of a certain subculture. People from H, on average, may feel pressured to achieve high successes academically, vocationally, and financially in order to 'belong' to their subculture and may even depend on such successes for their sense of self-worth. Likewise, people from L on average may be more content living a simple life with a simple job, rather than essentially making academic/vocational/etc success the focal point of their lifestyle. If this were the case, then we would see that R
work < R
population, even though all compromising socioeconomic effects on an individual's merit have been perfectly balanced out.
Please make note that I am
not saying something to the effect of "poor people are lazy, and it's their fault for the situation they're in." Indeed we do not live in an ideal society like the one described above. Rather, I am just questioning the specific claim that if socioeconomic factors affecting individual merit were balanced out perfectly that we would see a statistically equal ratio R
work = R
population.