Heat Kernel at t=0: Dirac Delta Intuition

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SUMMARY

The heat kernel at time t=0, denoted as k(x,0), is equivalent to the Dirac Delta function, δ(x). The heat kernel is defined by the equation k(x,t) = (1/Sqrt[4*π*D*t])*Exp[-x^2/(4*D*t)]. To establish this equivalence, one must demonstrate that the limit of the integral of the convolution of k(a-x,t) with a function f(x) approaches f(a) as t approaches 0. This property confirms that k(x,0) behaves as a delta distribution.

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i_hate_math
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Homework Statement


Show that k(x,0)=δ(x).
Where k(x,t) is the heat kernel and δ(x) is the Dirac Delta at x=0.

Homework Equations


k(x,t) = (1/Sqrt[4*π*D*t])*Exp[-x^2/(4*D*t)]

The Attempt at a Solution


I am just clueless from the beginning. I am guessing this is got to do with convolution?
I know ∫ k(x,t) dx = 1, {x, -∞, ∞} and the same goes for Dirac Delta.
 
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i_hate_math said:
I know ∫ k(x,t) dx = 1, {x, -∞, ∞} and the same goes for Dirac Delta.
This is not sufficient, there are many different functions that integrate to one, you need to show that
$$
\lim_{t\to 0^+} \int k(a-x,t) f(x) dx = f(a),
$$
which is the defining property of the delta distribution.
 
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Orodruin said:
This is not sufficient, there are many different functions that integrate to one, you need to show that
$$
\lim_{t\to 0^+} \int k(a-x,t) f(x) dx = f(a),
$$
which is the defining property of the delta distribution.
Thanks for ur reply! I'm still a bit confused as to how this expression is obtained? I'm not too familiar with convolution, would u care to explain why the convolution is the same as f(a) in the limit t->0
 
i_hate_math said:
Thanks for ur reply! I'm still a bit confused as to how this expression is obtained? I'm not too familiar with convolution, would u care to explain why the convolution is the same as f(a) in the limit t->0
This is the definition of the delta distribution so it is what you need to show. If you show that it is true you will have shown that ##k(x,0) = \delta(x)##.
 
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