Help Prove Lim x-infinity cos(nx) = dne

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SUMMARY

The limit of cos(nx) as x approaches negative infinity does not exist. This conclusion is based on the behavior of the cosine function, which oscillates between -1 and 1 for non-multiples of 2π, while converging to 1 for multiples of 2π. The discussion emphasizes the use of epsilon-delta proofs to demonstrate the non-existence of the limit by comparing sequences that diverge. Participants confirmed the reasoning that selecting specific sequences can effectively illustrate the limit's non-existence.

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Help! Prove Lim x--infinity cos(nx) = dne

Hey guys! I am new here however, I have been lurking around for a while. I need some help with a problem that I am currently working on. Here it is:

Homework Statement



Prove Lim x--infinity cos(nx) = does not exist

The Attempt at a Solution



As of now, I am not quite sure how to approach the problem. I know that I can say that if x is a multiple of 2π then it will converge to 1 however, if it is not a multiple of 2π then it will simply oscillate until infinity. As such, the limit does not exist. However, I doubt that that is what is required of the problem. I am thinking that there must be some systematic setup that I can use to prove this problem otherwise. Is there such a way or is my reasoning correct?

In our other problems, we used epsilon-delta proofs to prove that certain functions converged to p.

Anythings would help! Thanks guys!
 
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This reminds of a problem I had to do recently. Here are my thoughts:
Pick 2 sequences (x_{n})_{n} and (y_{n})_{n} such that lim x_{n} = infinity as n tends to infinity and lim y_{n} = infinity as n tends to infinity. Then show that lim f(x_{n}) ≠ lim f(y_{n}), therefore the limit does not exist.
 


frenchkiki said:
This reminds of a problem I had to do recently. Here are my thoughts:
Pick 2 sequences (x_{n})_{n} and (y_{n})_{n} such that lim x_{n} = infinity as n tends to infinity and lim y_{n} = infinity as n tends to infinity. Then show that lim f(x_{n}) ≠ lim f(y_{n}), therefore the limit does not exist.

So if I understand your statement correctly, I should choose for example cos(2πn) and show that that the limit goes to 1 and then pick any other to show that it goes to some other number? So basically my reasoning was right?
 


bluemax43 said:
So if I understand your statement correctly, I should choose for example cos(2πn) and show that that the limit goes to 1 and then pick any other to show that it goes to some other number? So basically my reasoning was right?

Yes it is correct.
 


got it thanks!
 

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