Help with Tensors: Using Einstein Summation Convention

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on applying the Einstein summation convention to demonstrate that the expression $$\eta^{\alpha \beta}\partial_{\alpha}\partial_{\beta}\frac{1}{R^2}=0$$ holds true. The initial approach involved differentiating $$R^2$$, but led to complications with terms that do not simplify to zero without assuming orthogonality of vectors. A suggested method is to differentiate the identity $$1 \equiv \frac{1}{R^2} R^2$$, leading to a derived equation that can be further differentiated. The conversation emphasizes the need for careful manipulation of tensor components and suggests exploring the relationship $$\partial_{\alpha} R^2 = 2x_{\alpha}$$ for additional insights. The participants are encouraged to continue experimenting with these equations to find a valid resolution.
user1139
Messages
71
Reaction score
8
Homework Statement
Show that the d'Alembertian of the scalar $$1/R^2=0$$
Relevant Equations
I am suppose to use this expression $$\partial_{\mu}R=\frac{\eta_{\mu\nu} x^{\nu}}{R}$$ to help show
Assuming Einstein summation convention, suppose $$R^2=\eta_{\mu\nu}x^{\mu}x^{\nu}$$

I was able to show that $$\partial_{\mu}R=\frac{\eta_{\mu\nu} x^{\nu}}{R}$$ by explicitly doing the covariant component of the four-gradient and using the kronecker tensor.

However, how do I use the equation expressed in the second paragraph to show that $$\eta^{\alpha \beta}\partial_{\alpha}\partial_{\beta}\frac{1}{R^2}=0$$? I tried $$R\rightarrow \frac{1}{R^2}$$ but I got expressions containing $$x^{\nu}x_{\alpha}$$ which will not give me 0 unless I assume $$x^{\nu}$$ and $$x_{\alpha}$$ are orthogonal which I think is wrong to do so.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
One idea is to differentiate ##1 \equiv \frac 1 {R^2} R^2##.
 
I am not sure if that helps though.
 
Thomas1 said:
I am not sure if that helps though.
Have you made progress by other means?
 
Unfortunately, no.
 
Thomas1 said:
Unfortunately, no.
Try this: $$0 = \partial_{\beta}(\frac{1}{R^2}{R^2}) = \partial_{\beta}(\frac 1 {R^2})R^2 + \frac 1 {R^2} \partial_{\beta}(R^2)$$ $$\partial_{\beta}(\frac 1 {R^2}) = -\frac{1}{R^4}\partial_{\beta}(R^2)$$ Then differeniate the first equation again by ##\partial_{\alpha}##: $$0 = \partial_{\alpha}\partial_{\beta}(\frac{1}{R^2}{R^2}) = \partial_{\alpha} \big [ \partial_{\beta}(\frac 1 {R^2})R^2 + \frac 1 {R^2} \partial_{\beta}(R^2) \big ]$$ And see whether you can make progress.
 
PS try also to show that $$\partial_{\alpha} R^2 = 2x_{\alpha}$$
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
0
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
4K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 30 ·
2
Replies
30
Views
7K