Undergrad Hermitian Operator Proof - Question

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The discussion centers on the necessity of a specific proof related to the complex conjugate of the expectation value of a physical variable in quantum mechanics. Participants question why the proof is essential instead of starting directly with the expression < Hψ | ψ >. It is noted that proving the eigenvalues of Hermitian operators are real is crucial, as Hermitian operators are typically used for observables. Additionally, the proof is important for demonstrating the orthogonality of eigenfunctions corresponding to different eigenvalues. Understanding these concepts is fundamental for grasping the properties of Hermitian operators in quantum mechanics.
Jd_duarte
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Hi,

I am questioning about this specific proof -https://quantummechanics.ucsd.edu/ph130a/130_notes/node134.html.
Why to do this proof is needed to compute the complex conjugate of the expectation value of a physical variable? Why can't we just start with &lt; H\psi \mid \psi &gt; ?
 
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Jd_duarte said:
Hi,

I am questioning about this specific proof -https://quantummechanics.ucsd.edu/ph130a/130_notes/node134.html.
Why to do this proof is needed to compute the complex conjugate of the expectation value of a physical variable? Why can't we just start with &lt; H\psi \mid \psi &gt; ?

If that's a proof of anything, it escapes me.

Normally, one proves that the eigenvalues of a Hermitian operator are real and then attention is restricted to Hermitian operators for observables; even though there may be non-Hermitian operators with real eigenvalues.
 
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Jd_duarte said:
Hi,

I am questioning about this specific proof -https://quantummechanics.ucsd.edu/ph130a/130_notes/node134.html.
Why to do this proof is needed to compute the complex conjugate of the expectation value of a physical variable? Why can't we just start with &lt; H\psi \mid \psi &gt; ?

Because you will need that result to prove that the eigenfunctions of an hermitian operator corresponding to different eigenvalues are orthogonal.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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