How can a projection matrix be used to solve an exponential matrix equation?

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The discussion focuses on solving the equation e^{tA} = I - A + e^{t}A, where A is a projection matrix satisfying A^2 = A. Initial attempts to show that e^{tA} is idempotent were unsuccessful, leading to exploration of the identity e^{tA}e^{-tA} = I. A key breakthrough involved using the definition of the matrix exponential, which simplifies terms significantly due to the properties of projection matrices. Ultimately, the series expansion confirms that e^{tA} aligns with the right side of the equation. The solution demonstrates the effective application of matrix exponential properties in the context of projection matrices.
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Homework Statement


Show that
e^{tA} = I - A + e^{t}A

t \in T \ \ \ \ T \subset R

R being the set of real numbers and T some interval.

The matrix A is a projection matrix. i.e. A^2 = A


The Attempt at a Solution



First attempt at the problem involved showing that e^{tA} idempotent because of the projection matrix but soon found out that it could not be.

A^2 = A then

(tA)^2 = tA this, I think, is obvious, but then

(e^{tA})^2 = e^{2tA} \neq e^{tA} this is where I stranded first.


Second attempt involved this trick
e^{tA}e^{-tA} = I this will give us

e^{tA}e^{-tA} = I = Ie^{-ta} - Ae^{-tA} + e^{t-tA}A

= (I-A)e^{-tA} + Ae^{t(I-A)}
Now, if I differentiate this

\frac{d}{dt} I = 0 = -A(I-A)e^{-tA} + A(I-A)e^{t(I-A)}

So close, yet so far...this cannot be true cause of the exponential functions. Not unless

-A = I - A by some means.


Any ideas?
 
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Cant you just use the definition of the matrix exponential, i.e.

e^{tA}=\sum_{k=0}^\infty{\frac{t^kA^k}{k!}}

Using the formula A=A² in there should simplify a lot of terms...
 
You my dear sir are a delight!

e^{tA} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} t^n A^n = I \ - \ A \ + \ e^t A = I \ - \ A \ + \ A \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} t^n

= I - A + A(I + t + \frac{1}{2!} t^2 \dots \frac{1}{n!}t^n)

Now we know that A^n = A so

\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} t^n A^n becomes

I + tA + \frac{1}{2!} t^2 A + \dots + \frac{1}{n!} t^n A

This is equivalent to the right side of the equation, so it fits.*victory dance*
 
:cool:
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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