How Can Algebraic Manipulation Prove the Consensus Property in Logic Circuits?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the algebraic manipulation required to prove the consensus property in logic circuits, specifically the expression xy + yz + x!z = xy + x!z. The context is rooted in electrical engineering, particularly in the design of logic circuits.

Discussion Character

  • Homework-related
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the problem and seeks assistance in proving the consensus property using algebraic manipulation.
  • Another participant suggests a specific algebraic transformation involving the addition of (x + x!) to the expression.
  • A later reply discusses the rule that allows the introduction of (x + x!) into the equation, explaining that it simplifies to true (T) and does not change the truth value of the expression.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

The discussion does not appear to reach a consensus on the understanding of the rules involved in the algebraic manipulation, as one participant expresses confusion about the legality of introducing (x + x!).

Contextual Notes

Participants reference specific rules and properties of Boolean algebra, but the discussion does not clarify all assumptions or dependencies on definitions, leaving some steps unresolved.

Who May Find This Useful

Students and practitioners in electrical engineering, particularly those studying logic circuits and Boolean algebra.

shamieh
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Some background: I am in EE 280 Design of Logic Circuits.

Problem: Use algebraic manipulation to prove that xy +yz +x!z = xy + x!z. (Note that this is the consensus property which is: xy + yz + x!z = xy + x!z)

+ mean OR, ! mean NOT.

Please help! I am lost. I do have the rules near me (x AND 1 = x etc.. as well as the "Single Variable Theorems") If someone could walk me through solving this that would be great and I would be forever thankful.
 
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Try this:
$$xy+\bar{x}z+yz=xy+\bar{x}z+(x+\bar{x})yz.$$
 
Awesome, just figured it out. I solved and everything. I have a question tho. Where exactly does the rule (x + x!) come in play? I guess my question essentially is; how do I know that I can randomly put in a (x + x!) in the 2nd term. What is the property or rule that tells me I can do that legally? Sorry if this seems like a dumb question I'm just trying to understand what I'm actually doing versus just solving the equation.

Thanks again Ackbach,
-Sham(Ninja)
 
Well, $x+\bar{x}=\text{T}$, and $Tz=z$. So you can always multiply anything by $T$ and not change the truth value.
 

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