How can I find the probability and expectation value in quantum mechanics?

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The discussion focuses on calculating probability and expectation values in quantum mechanics using a normalized wavefunction and an operator. The probability of measuring a specific value from the spectrum of the operator is derived from the probability amplitude, which is the integral of the product of the eigenfunction and the wavefunction. It is confirmed that the sum of probabilities over all possible outcomes equals one, reinforcing the completeness of the quantum state. The expectation value of the operator is expressed as an integral involving the wavefunction and the operator itself. The conversation emphasizes the relationship between the wavefunction and its expansion in terms of eigenstates, clarifying the mathematical framework of quantum mechanics.
Martin Osborne
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Homework Statement


[/B]

Hi, I have a problem I have been trying to do for a few days and I am not getting it. Any hints would be greatly appreciated. The question is from "The physics of Quantum Mechanics" by Binney and Skinner.

The question states:
Let ##\psi##(x) be a properly normalised wavefunction and Q an operator on wavefunctions. Let {qr} be the spectrum of Q and let {Ur(x)} be the corresponding correctly normalised eigenfunctions. Write down an expression for the probability that a measure of Q will yeild the value qr.

Show that ##\Sigma_r P(q_r |\psi) = 1##.

Show further that the expectation of Q is ## \langle Q \rangle = \int _{-\infty} ^\infty \psi^* Q \psi dx## .

Homework Equations

and attempt[/B]

So for the first part, the probability amplitude of measuring qr given the system is in the state ## |\psi\rangle ## is given by ## \langle q _ r | \psi \rangle = \int _{-\infty} ^\infty u_r^*(x) \psi(x) dx## .

and taking the mod squared of this gives the probability the question is asking for.

The next part says that summing these probabilities over all r = 1? I understand what this means (probability of finding a value of q within the spectrum given = 1), but don't know how to show this.

As for the last part, the expectation value is the sum of the probabilities of getting each value of q multiplied by the value qr, so $$ \langle Q \rangle = \Sigma _ r q_r | \int _ {-\infty}^\infty u_r^*(x) \psi(x) dx |^2 $$Cant get any further...
 
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sorry, latex not working let me try again...

fixed it...
 
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Try expanding ##\lvert \psi \rangle## in terms of the eigenstates.
 
Thanks Vela,

I am thinking ##|\psi\rangle = \int_{-\infty} ^\infty \psi(x) |x\rangle## But is it also the case that ##\psi(x) = \sum a_r u_r(x)## where the ##a_r##s are probability amplitudes in Q space.

Can I say that ##|\psi\rangle = \int_{-\infty} ^\infty (\sum a_r u_r(x)) |x\rangle##
 
Yes, and that would be equivalent to saying ##\lvert \psi \rangle = \sum_r a_r \lvert q_r \rangle##.
 

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