How can I find the probability and expectation value in quantum mechanics?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the probability and expectation value in quantum mechanics, specifically focusing on the properties of wavefunctions and operators as described in a problem from "The physics of Quantum Mechanics" by Binney and Skinner.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to express the probability of measuring a specific value from the spectrum of an operator and to show that the sum of probabilities equals one. They also explore the formulation of the expectation value of the operator.
  • Some participants suggest expanding the wavefunction in terms of eigenstates and question the relationship between the wavefunction and its representation in terms of eigenfunctions.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing hints and exploring different formulations of the wavefunction. There is no explicit consensus yet, but guidance has been offered regarding the expansion of the wavefunction and its relation to eigenstates.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through the constraints of quantum mechanics principles, including normalization of wavefunctions and the implications of probability amplitudes in the context of measurement.

Martin Osborne
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Homework Statement


[/B]

Hi, I have a problem I have been trying to do for a few days and I am not getting it. Any hints would be greatly appreciated. The question is from "The physics of Quantum Mechanics" by Binney and Skinner.

The question states:
Let ##\psi##(x) be a properly normalised wavefunction and Q an operator on wavefunctions. Let {qr} be the spectrum of Q and let {Ur(x)} be the corresponding correctly normalised eigenfunctions. Write down an expression for the probability that a measure of Q will yeild the value qr.

Show that ##\Sigma_r P(q_r |\psi) = 1##.

Show further that the expectation of Q is ## \langle Q \rangle = \int _{-\infty} ^\infty \psi^* Q \psi dx## .

Homework Equations

and attempt[/B]

So for the first part, the probability amplitude of measuring qr given the system is in the state ## |\psi\rangle ## is given by ## \langle q _ r | \psi \rangle = \int _{-\infty} ^\infty u_r^*(x) \psi(x) dx## .

and taking the mod squared of this gives the probability the question is asking for.

The next part says that summing these probabilities over all r = 1? I understand what this means (probability of finding a value of q within the spectrum given = 1), but don't know how to show this.

As for the last part, the expectation value is the sum of the probabilities of getting each value of q multiplied by the value qr, so $$ \langle Q \rangle = \Sigma _ r q_r | \int _ {-\infty}^\infty u_r^*(x) \psi(x) dx |^2 $$Cant get any further...
 
Last edited:
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sorry, latex not working let me try again...

fixed it...
 
Last edited:
Try expanding ##\lvert \psi \rangle## in terms of the eigenstates.
 
Thanks Vela,

I am thinking ##|\psi\rangle = \int_{-\infty} ^\infty \psi(x) |x\rangle## But is it also the case that ##\psi(x) = \sum a_r u_r(x)## where the ##a_r##s are probability amplitudes in Q space.

Can I say that ##|\psi\rangle = \int_{-\infty} ^\infty (\sum a_r u_r(x)) |x\rangle##
 
Yes, and that would be equivalent to saying ##\lvert \psi \rangle = \sum_r a_r \lvert q_r \rangle##.
 

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