How can I solve for the form of f in this integral equation with a>b?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around solving an integral equation for the function f, specifically in the context where b > a. Participants explore both numerical and analytical approaches to derive the form of f from the equation: \(\frac{1}{f(r)+1} = \int_r^b f(x) dx + \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^2}f(x)dx\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests differentiating both sides of the equation and applying the fundamental theorem of calculus to express everything in terms of f(x) and other terms.
  • Another participant expresses confusion regarding the application of the fundamental theorem of calculus to the second integral, noting the presence of both x and r in the integrand.
  • It is proposed that Leibniz's rule can be applied to differentiate the second integral, leading to a more complex expression involving f(r) and an integral term.
  • One participant attempts to simplify the differentiation process, suggesting that the f(x) terms may cancel out under certain conditions.
  • There is a suggestion to approximate the differential equation based on the assumption that x and r are of the same order, which may allow for simplifications.
  • A later reply emphasizes the importance of back-substituting any obtained solution into the original integral equation to check for consistency between the left and right sides.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express various approaches to the problem, with no consensus reached on a definitive method or solution. There are differing opinions on the application of differentiation techniques and the implications of certain assumptions.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the complexity of applying differentiation rules due to the mixed variables in the integrand, and there are unresolved questions regarding the validity of approximations made in the context of the problem.

DukeLuke
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Any advice on how to approach a problem like this either numerically or analytically? I'm looking to find the form of f where b>a.\frac{1}{f(r)+1} = \int_r^b f(x) dx + \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^2}f(x)dx
 
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Hey DukeLuke.

The first suggestion would be to differentiate both sides and use the fundamental theorem of calculus to get everything in terms of f(x) and the other terms.

Once you get the differential equation for f and r, you can then at a minimum use numerical techniques to obtain an approximation,

For the LHS you can use standard quotient rules and collect terms and for integrals you use the fundamental theorem of calculus.

Have you come across the FTC for integral expressions and relationship between derivatives?
 
Thanks for the response. I'm confused about how to apply the FTC to the second integral. I'm not sure what
\frac{d}{dr} \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^2}f(x) dx
is because it contains the x^2 and r^2 in the integrand. It seems like some sort of product rule for integration is needed (or integration by parts without knowing the form of the function). I think the other terms are

\frac{d}{dr} \int_r^b f(x) dx = -f(r)
\frac{d}{dr} \frac{1}{f(r)+1} = \frac{-f^'(r)}{(f(r)+1)^2}
 
DukeLuke said:
Thanks for the response. I'm confused about how to apply the FTC to the second integral. I'm not sure what
\frac{d}{dr} \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^2}f(x) dx

You need to apply Leibnitz's rule to that:

\frac{d}{dr} \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^2}f(x) dx =f(r)+\int_a^r \frac{\partial}{\partial r} \left(\frac{x^2}{r^2} f(x)\right)dx

I don't think that's going to do it though guys assuming a\leq r\leq b.
 
If I apply the Liebniz rule to the term I'm having trouble with,

\frac{d}{dr} \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^2} f(x) dx = f(r) - 2 \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^3} f(x) dx

The f(x) cancels with the other integral result of -f(x). If I differentiate one more time using the rule I think I'm left with,

\frac{d}{dr} \int_a^r \frac{ - 2x^2}{r^3} f(x) dx = -2\frac{f(r)}{r} +6 \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^4} f(x) dx

In my case it's safe to assume that x and r are of the same order meaning that \frac{x^2}{r^4} will be small. Do you think I can safely approximate the differential equation with

\frac{d}{dr} \frac{-f^'(r)}{(f(r)+1)^2} = -2\frac{f(r)}{r}

Edit: just saw jackmell's post and yes a<r<b
 
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DukeLuke said:
Do you think I can safely approximate the differential equation with

\frac{d}{dr} \frac{-f^&#039;(r)}{(f(r)+1)^2} = -2\frac{f(r)}{r}

Edit: just saw jackmell's post and yes a<r<b

I'm all about trying. I would try that, obtain a solution, any reasonable solution, then back-substitute it into the original integral equation and see how the left and right sides agree. If they agree reasonably well for my particular application, I would be satisfied.
 
DukeLuke said:
If I apply the Liebniz rule to the term I'm having trouble with,

\frac{d}{dr} \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^2} f(x) dx = f(r) - 2 \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^3} f(x) dx

The f(x) cancels with the other integral result of -f(x). If I differentiate one more time using the rule...
Before doing that, you have:

\frac{1}{f(r)+1} = - 2 \int_a^r \frac{x^2}{r^3} f(x) dx
\frac{r^3}{f(r)+1} = - 2\int_a^r x^2 f(x) dx
What if you differentiate now?
 

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