How can the change of variables be used to prove these integrals are equal?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the equality of two integrals involving the variables \( a \) and \( b \), specifically the integral from 0 to \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) of \( \frac{d(b)}{1 + \tan(b)} \) and the integral from 0 to \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) of \( \frac{d(a)}{1 + \cot(a)} \). The relationship \( a = \frac{\pi}{2 - b} \) is established as a change of variables. The proof requires a proper application of substitution techniques in integral calculus.

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Andrew123
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hi guys just a quick proof i need help with please:

if a = pi / (2-b)

prove the integral from 0 to pi/2 of d(b) / [1 + tan(b)] equals the integral from 0 to pi/2 of

d(a) / [1 + cot(a)]

cheers guys!
 
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I don't quite see how to get that answer yet, but I'd start doing the change of variables properly.
 

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