Well... It has been a while, isn't it? (Wave)
Getting back to this problem, as it was very interesting. Now I have following solution for it:
Let's define
\[ g(a) = \int_{0} ^{1} \frac{x^{a}}{1 - x} \mathrm{d}x = \sum_{v=0} ^{\infty} \int_{0} ^{1} x^{a+v}\mathrm{d}x = \sum_{v=0} ^{\infty} \frac{1}{a+v+1}. \]
Now the integral in question can be written as
\[ F(n) = g(n-1) + g \left( n-\frac{1}{2} \right) - 2g(2n-1) = \sum_{v=0} ^{\infty} \left( \frac{1}{v + n} + \frac{1}{v + \left( n + \frac{1}{2} \right)} - \frac{2}{v + 2n} \right). \]
By noticing that \( a + v \ne -1 \) one arrives to a condition \( n \ne 0, -\frac{1}{2}, -1, -\frac{3}{2}, \ldots \).
Then by using identities of digamma function one directly obtains
\[ F(n) = 2\psi (2n+1) - \psi (n+1) - \psi \left(n + \frac{3}{2}\right) + \frac{1}{n} + \frac{1}{n + \frac{1}{2}} - \frac{2}{2n} = 2\ln 2.\]
Ok, but what if \( n = 0, -\frac{1}{2} , -1, -\frac{3}{2}, \ldots \)?
Let's write \( n = -\frac{p}{2} \) where \(p = 0, 1, \ldots \). After that one can substitute \( x = \frac{1}{q^{2}} \) and one obtains
\[ F\left( n = -\frac{p}{2} \right) = 2\int_{1} ^{\infty} \frac{q^{p} + q^{p+1} - 2q^{2p+1}}{q^{2} - 1} \mathrm{d}q \].
This is clearly divergent.
Hence it looks like the value of the integral equals to \( 2\ln 2\) as long as \(n \ne 0, -\frac{1}{2}, -1, -\frac{3}{2}, \ldots \).
Any thoughts on this?