How can the Lorentz force law be derived using the action principle?

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SUMMARY

The Lorentz force law can be derived using the action principle by varying the Lagrangian for a classical particle, represented as S = ∫ d³x (-m ∫ dτ δ(x-w(τ)) + q ∫ dτ (dw^μ/dτ) A_μ δ(x - w(τ))). The derivation involves using a parameter-independent action functional and applying the Euler-Lagrange equations to obtain the equations of motion. The resulting equations confirm that the motion of a charged particle in an electromagnetic field is governed by m (d/dλ)(u_μ) = q F_μν u^ν, where F_μν is the electromagnetic field tensor. This formulation allows for flexibility in choosing the parameter λ, which can be set to proper time or coordinate time.

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  • Understanding of classical mechanics and Lagrangian formalism
  • Familiarity with the concepts of electromagnetic fields and tensors
  • Knowledge of the Euler-Lagrange equations
  • Basic grasp of covariant notation and proper time in relativistic physics
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  • Study the derivation of the Lorentz force law in "Quantum Mechanics and Path Integrals" by Richard Feynman
  • Learn about the Hamilton principle of least action and its applications in classical mechanics
  • Explore the properties and applications of the electromagnetic field tensor F_μν
  • Investigate the implications of parameter independence in Lagrangian mechanics
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Hi, I am trying to derive the Lorentz force law in the following form:
<br /> q \frac{dw^\mu}{d\tau} = q w^\mu \partial_\nu A_\sigma \epsilon_\mu^{\nu \sigma}<br />
by varying the following Lagrangian for a classical particle:
<br /> S = \int d^3 x \left( -m \int d\tau \delta(x-w(\tau) ) + q \int d\tau \frac{dw^\mu}{d\tau} A_\mu \delta(x - w(\tau) ) \right)<br />
where w tracks the position of the particle as a function of proper time. Note that there may be a couple terms/indices missing from the above expressions (still trying to figure that out).

I've read on a different thread that Feynman has that derivation in "QM and Path Integrals", which I have handy right now, however I couldn't find the derivation I am looking for.

Any push in the right direction would be more than appreciated.
 
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The covariant formalism is a bit tricky. The problem is that you cannot use the proper time directly in the Lagrangian, because it implicitly contains the constraint that \mathrm{d} \tau=\mathrm{d} t \sqrt{1-v^2} (I'm setting the speed of light to 1 here).

You can, however use an arbitrary "world parameter" and write down a parameter-independent action functional. For the free particle it's
S_0[x]=-m \int \mathrm{d} \lambda \sqrt{\dot{x}_{\mu} \dot{x}^{\mu}}.
I'm using the "west-coast convention" for the pseudometric, i.e., \eta_{\mu \nu}=\text{diag}(1,-1,-1,-1).
The interaction with an external electromagnetic field is determined by
S_i[x]=-q \int \mathrm{d} \lambda \dot{x}^{\mu} A_{\mu}(x).
Note that the total Lagrangian,
L=-m \sqrt{\dot{x}_{\mu} \dot{x}^{\mu}} - q \dot{x}^{\mu} A_{\mu}(x)
is a homogeneous function of degree 1 wrt. \dot{x}. This implies the parameter independence. Now you can derive the equations of motion from the Hamilton principle of least action as usual, using the Euler-Lagrange equations. The canonical momenta are given by
p_{\mu}=\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}^{\mu}}=-m \frac{\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\sqrt{\dot{x}_{\nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}}}-q A_{\mu}
and thus the equation of motion
\dot{p}_{\mu}=\frac{\partial L}{\partial x^{\mu}} \; \Rightarrow \; -m \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} \lambda} \left (\frac{\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\sqrt{\dot{x}_{\nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}}} \right ) - q \dot{x}^{\nu} \partial_{\nu} A_{\mu}(x)=-q \dot{x}^{\nu} \partial_{\mu} A_{\nu}.
Now you can bring this into a more familiar form by rearranging the terms to
m \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} \lambda} \left (\frac{\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\sqrt{\dot{x}_{\nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}}} \right ) = q \dot{x}^{\nu} (\partial_{\mu} A_{\nu}-\partial_{\nu} A_{\mu})=q F_{\mu \nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}.
Now you can choose for \lambda whatever parameter you like. It is crucial to note that the equation of motion, if derived from a Lagrangian that is homogeneous in \dot{x}^{\mu} of degree one, automatically fulfills the constraint equation
\dot{x}^{\mu} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} \lambda} \left (\frac{\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\sqrt{\dot{x}_{\nu} \dot{x}^{\nu}}} \right )=0,
which implies that the 4 equations of motion are not independent from each other and thus you can choose the parameter \lambda as you like after the variation is done, i.e., on the level of the equations of motion.

If you choose the proper time, \lambda=\tau, then you get \dot{x}_{\mu} \dot{x}^{\mu}=1 and thus
m \frac{\mathrm{d} u_{\mu}}{\mathrm{d} \tau}=q F_{\mu \nu} u^{\nu} \quad \text{with} \quad u^{\mu}=m \frac{\mathrm{d} x^{\mu}}{\mathrm{d} \tau}.
You can as well chose a coordinate time, t of an inertial frame. Then the equation of motion appears in a form that is not longer manifestly covariant, but you get, because of \dot{x}^{\mu} \dot{x}_{\nu}=1-\vec{v}^2, \quad \vec{v}=\frac{\mathrm{d} \vec{x}}{\mathrm{d} t},
for the spatial part of the equations of motion (writing the Faraday tensor in terms of the three-dimensional notation with \vec{E} and \vec{B})
m \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} t} \left (\frac{\vec{v}}{\sqrt{1-\vec{v}^2}} \right ) = q (\vec{E}+\vec{v} \times \vec{B}),
and the time component is just the energy-work relation, following from this:
m \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} t} \left (\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\vec{v}^2}} \right ) = \vec{v} \cdot \vec{E}.
 
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