How can we prove the inequality challenge for positive real numbers?

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The discussion centers on proving the inequality for positive real numbers \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\) defined as \(\frac{a}{2a+b+c}+\frac{b}{a+2b+c}+\frac{c}{a+b+2c}\le \frac{3}{4}\). Participants provided solutions and insights into the proof methodology. The consensus highlights the importance of algebraic manipulation and the application of known inequality techniques to establish the validity of the statement.

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anemone
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Let $a,\,b$ and $c$ be positive real numbers, prove that

$$\frac{a}{2a+b+c}+\frac{b}{a+2b+c}+\frac{c}{a+b+2c}\le \frac{3}{4}$$.
 
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Here is my solution.
Let $S = a + b + c$, $x = a/S$, $b = y/S$, and $z = c/S$. Then $x + y + z = 1$ and the above expression equals

$$\frac{x}{1 + x} + \frac{y}{1 + y} + \frac{z}{1 + z}$$

which is the same as

$$\left(1 - \frac{1}{1 + x}\right) + \left(1 - \frac{1}{1 + y}\right) + \left(1 - \frac{1}{1 + z}\right)$$

or

$$3 - \left(\frac{1}{1 + x} + \frac{1}{1 + y} + \frac{1}{1 + z}\right)\tag{*}$$

By the arithmetic-harmonic mean inequality,

$$\frac{1}{1 + x} + \frac{1}{1 + y} + \frac{1}{1 + z} \ge \frac{3^2}{(1 + x) + (1 + y) + (1 + z)} = \frac{9}{3 + (x + y + z)} = \frac{9}{3 + 1} = \frac{9}{4}$$

with equality if and only if $x = y = z$. Hence, the expression $(*)$ is no greater than $3 - 9/4 = 3/4$, with equality if and only if $x = y = z$ (which is equivalent to the condition $a = b = c$).
 
anemone said:
Let $a,\,b$ and $c$ be positive real numbers, prove that

$$\frac{a}{2a+b+c}+\frac{b}{a+2b+c}+\frac{c}{a+b+2c}\le \frac{3}{4}$$.

Simple expansion does the tricky part and you are precisely done
 
Euge said:
Here is my solution.
Let $S = a + b + c$, $x = a/S$, $b = y/S$, and $z = c/S$. Then $x + y + z = 1$ and the above expression equals

$$\frac{x}{1 + x} + \frac{y}{1 + y} + \frac{z}{1 + z}$$

which is the same as

$$\left(1 - \frac{1}{1 + x}\right) + \left(1 - \frac{1}{1 + y}\right) + \left(1 - \frac{1}{1 + z}\right)$$

or

$$3 - \left(\frac{1}{1 + x} + \frac{1}{1 + y} + \frac{1}{1 + z}\right)\tag{*}$$

By the arithmetic-harmonic mean inequality,

$$\frac{1}{1 + x} + \frac{1}{1 + y} + \frac{1}{1 + z} \ge \frac{3^2}{(1 + x) + (1 + y) + (1 + z)} = \frac{9}{3 + (x + y + z)} = \frac{9}{3 + 1} = \frac{9}{4}$$

with equality if and only if $x = y = z$. Hence, the expression $(*)$ is no greater than $3 - 9/4 = 3/4$, with equality if and only if $x = y = z$ (which is equivalent to the condition $a = b = c$).

Very well done, Euge!(Cool) And thanks for participating!

My solution:
Let $x=a+b,\,y=b+c$ and $z=a+c$, this gives $$a=\frac{x-y+z}{2},\, b=\frac{x+y-z}{2}$$, and $$c=\frac{y+z-x}{2}$$ and the LHS of the intended inequality becomes

$$\begin{align*}\frac{a}{2a+b+c}+\frac{b}{a+2b+c}+\frac{c}{a+b+2c}&=\frac{x-y+z}{2(x+z)}+\frac{x+y-z}{2(x+y)}+\frac{y+z-x}{2(y+z)}\\&=\frac{(x+z)-y}{2(x+z)}+\frac{(x+y)-z}{2(x+y)}+\frac{(y+z)-x}{2(y+z)}\\&=\frac{3}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{y}{x+z}+\frac{z}{x+y}+\frac{x}{y+z}\right)\\&\le \frac{3}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{3}{2}\right),\,\,\text{since, by Nesbitt's inequality}\,\,\frac{y}{x+z}+\frac{z}{x+y}+\frac{x}{y+z}\ge \frac{3}{2}\\&=\frac{3}{4}\,\,\text{(Q.E.D.)} \end{align*}$$

Evobeus said:
Simple expansion does the tricky part and you are precisely done

Hi Evobeus!

I was wondering how the expansion would help to tackle the problem because for me, I always avoid the expansion (unless it is the last resort) in solving the inequality problems, could you post your entire solution here so I could learn something from it?
 

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