thharrimw
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I have wondered about this for a while now and can anyone tell me the proof behind A^2+B^2=C^2?
The discussion revolves around the origins and proofs of the Pythagorean theorem, specifically the relationship expressed as a² + b² = c². Participants explore various proofs, historical context, and the mathematical implications of the theorem, covering both geometric and algebraic perspectives.
Participants express a range of views on the proofs and historical context of the Pythagorean theorem, indicating that multiple competing interpretations and models exist. There is no consensus on the origins or the completeness of Euclid's proof.
Some discussions highlight limitations in Euclid's approach, particularly regarding the definitions of area and similarity, which were not fully developed during his time. This raises questions about the completeness of his proof of the theorem.
robert Ihnot said:LukeD: I personally like the proof that uses the simple fact that if vectors u and v are orthagonal, then the dot product of u and v is 0. Pretty much gives the result immediately without needing any pretty pictures (as nice as those pretty pictures are)
I wonder how legitimate that is. Why not define a right angle such that the square of the sides equals the hypothesis?